All 100 questions of AIBE-18 (2023) Set A with the correct answer, an original explanation, and the exact bare-act provision a tap away. No negative marking. The qualifying cutoff is 45 of 100 for General and OBC, 40 of 100 for SC, ST and PwD.
AIBE 18 (XXI) Set A Answer Key 2023 with Solutions
Answer key at a glance
Question 1Constitutional Law
The concept of freedom of trade and commerce mentioned in the Indian Constitution is motivated from the experience of the following country?
AAmerica
Australia
CIreland
DUnited Kingdom
Why B. Article 301 of the Constitution of India guarantees freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse throughout the territory of India, and this principle was directly inspired by the constitutional framework of Australia, which similarly enshrined free trade between its states.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 2Constitutional Law
Which of the following writ is issued to enforce the performance of public duties by the authority?
Mandamus
BQuo warranto
CCertiorari
DProhibition
Why A. Mandamus is a writ issued by the High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution of India to compel a public authority to perform a public duty that it has refused or failed to perform.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 3Constitutional Law
Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act had made the provi¬sion for publishing Hindi Translation of the Constitution?
A52nd Amendment
B54th Amendment
C56th Amendment
58th Amendment
Why D. The 58th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced the provision for publishing an authoritative Hindi translation of the Constitution, ensuring its accessibility and official recognition in the national language.
Question 4Constitutional Law
Which of the following is the landmark judgment on the Colourable legisla¬tion?
State of Bihar v Kameshwar Singh
BM. Karunanidhi v Union of India
CState of Karnataka v Union of India
DKeshavan Madhava Menon v State of Bombay
Why A. The case establishes that a legislature cannot achieve through indirect means what it is constitutionally prohibited from doing directly, thereby defining the doctrine of colourable legislation as a limit on legislative power under the Constitution.
Question 5Constitutional Law
Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in light of the advisory opinion received in Re Berubari case?
AThe Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act, 1955
BThe Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
The Constitution (Ninth Amendment) Act, 1960
DThe Constitution (Eleventh Amendment) Act, 1961
Why C. The Constitution (Ninth Amendment) Act, 1960, was enacted to implement the transfer of enclaves between India and Pakistan, as advised by the Supreme Court in the Re Berubari case, which held that such territorial changes required a constitutional amendment under the power of Parliament to amend the First Schedule.
Question 6Constitutional Law
Which of the following provision of the Constitution of India is relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between a Central law and a State law?
AArticle 248
BArticle 252
Article 254
DArticle 256
Why C. Article 254 of the Constitution of India provides the legal principle for resolving repugnancy between a Central law and a State law on a subject in the Concurrent List, where the Central law prevails if it is inconsistent with the State law, unless the State law has been reserved for the President's assent and has received it.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 7Constitutional Law
What transition period was provided in the Constitution of India for chang¬ing official language of Union from English to Hindi?
A5 years
B10 years
15 years
D25 years
Why C. Article 343 of the Constitution of India provides that English shall continue to be used for all official purposes of the Union for a period of fifteen years from the commencement of the Constitution, unless Parliament otherwise provides.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 8Constitutional Law
In which of the following case it was held that there could be no reservation on single post in the cadre?
Chakradhar Paswan v State of Bihar
BK.C. Vasanth Kumar v State of Karnataka
CA.B.S.K. Sangh (Rly) v Union of India
DState of Kerala v N.M. Thomas
Why A. Section 16(1) of the Constitution of India prohibits reservation in a single post, as it would violate the principle of equality and the requirement of a reasonable classification for affirmative action.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 9Constitutional Law
Sexual harassment of a working woman at her place of work may also be considered as the violation of which of the following provision of the Constitution of India?
AArticle 19(1)(b)
BArticle 19(1)(d)
CArticle 19(1)(e)
Article 19(1)(g)
Why D. Article 19(1)(g) guarantees the fundamental right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business, and sexual harassment at the workplace directly impairs this right by creating an hostile environment that obstructs professional participation.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 10Constitutional Law
Which of the following doctrine has been applied to resolve the conflict between Article 25(2)(b) and 26(b) of the Constitution of India?
Doctrine of Harmonious construction
BDoctrine of Casus Omissus
CDoctrine of Liberal interpretation
DDoctrine of Pith and substance
Why A. The Doctrine of Harmonious Construction is applied to reconcile conflicts between Article 25(2)(b) and Article 26(b) by interpreting both provisions in a manner that gives effect to each, ensuring that the right to manage religious affairs under Article 26(b) is not rendered meaningless while allowing reasonable restrictions under Article 25(2)(b).
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 11Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
In which of the following situations Indian Penal Code, 1860 may not ap¬ply? i. An offence committed by Indians outside India. ii. An offence committed by any person on any ship registered in India. iii. Any person committing offence targeting computer resources located in any country.
AOnly i
BOnly ii
COnly iii
DOnly i & ii
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 12Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
How many types of punishment are currently existing under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
A3
B4
5
D6
Why C. Section 53 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, prescribes five types of punishment: death, imprisonment for life, simple or rigorous imprisonment, forfeiture of property, and fine.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 13Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
A and Z agree to fence with each other for amusement. In the course of such fencing, while playing fairly, A hurts Z severely. Which of the following offence is committed by A?
AHurt
BAttempt to murder
CGrievous hurt
No offence
Why D. Under Section 88 of the BNS, an act done in good faith for the benefit of a person, with that person's consent, and not intended to cause death or grievous hurt, is not an offence; since A and Z consented to fencing for amusement and acted fairly, no offence is committed.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 14Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
In which of the following situations right of private defence can not extend to causing death?
AIn case when an assault is causing apprehension of murder.
BIn case when assault is reflecting intention of committing rape.
In case when assault is reflecting intention of causing simple hurt.
DIn case when assault is reflecting intention of gratifying unnatural lust.
Why C. Under Section 100 of the BNS, the right of private defence of body does not extend to causing death unless the assault reasonably causes the apprehension of death or grievous hurt; an assault reflecting only the intention to cause simple hurt does not justify causing death in self-defence.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 15Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
For which of the following Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 the word benefit does not include pecuniary benefits?
Section 89
BSection 155
CSection 156
DSection 370
Why A. Section 89 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, provides that an act done in good faith for the benefit of a person under twelve years of age, or of unsound mind, without their consent, is not an offence, and the term "benefit" in this context refers to non-pecuniary advantage such as health, safety, or welfare, excluding financial gain.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 16Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
X intentionally pulls up a woman's veil without her consent intending to annoy her. As per the Indian Penal Code, 1860 which of the following offence has he committed?
AHurt
Criminal force
CAssault
DGrievous hurt
Why B. Under Section 350 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, criminal force is defined as the intentional use of force to any person without that person's consent, with the intent to annoy, hurt, or frighten. Pulling up a woman's veil without her consent to annoy her satisfies this definition, as it involves intentional application of force against her will for the purpose of annoyance.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 17Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
What punishment is prescribed under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 for a person who maims any minor in order that such minor may be used for the purposes of begging?
AImprisonment for 5 years and fine
BImprisonment for 7 years and fine
CImprisonment for 10 years and fine
Imprisonment for life and fine
Why D. Under Section 363A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, whoever maims any minor with the intent to use such minor for the purposes of begging shall be punished with imprisonment for life and fine.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 18Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
X threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Y unless Y gives him money. Which of the following punishment may be given to X for the act committed by him as per the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
AImprisonment up to 2 years, or with fine or with both.
Imprisonment up to 3 years, or with fine or with both.
CImprisonment up to 5 years, or with fine or with both.
DImprisonment up to 7 years, or with fine or with both.
Why B. Under Section 384 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, extortion is punishable with imprisonment up to three years, or with fine, or with both, as the threat to publish a defamatory libel to obtain money constitutes extortion.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 19Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which of the following sentence is an Assistant Sessions Judge authorised to pass as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
ASentence of death.
BSentence of imprisonment for life.
Sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years.
DSentence of imprisonment for a term exceeding ten years.
Why C. Under Section 29 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, an Assistant Sessions Judge is authorised to pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years, as this is the maximum sentence such a court is empowered to impose.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 20Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
A person arrested by a private person for committing a non-bailable and cognizable offence shall be re-arrested by a police officer if such person comes under which of the following provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
ASection 41
BSection 41A
CSection 42
Section 43
Why D. Section 43 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, authorizes a private person to arrest someone committing a non-bailable and cognizable offence, but mandates that such a person be handed over without unnecessary delay to a police officer, who then assumes custody and re-arrests the individual under the law.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 21Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Under which of the following situation wife is not entitled for maintenance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
AHusband presumes that wife is living in adultery.
BVoluntarily wife refuses to live with husband.
CWife living separately as husband keeps a mistress.
DWife is forcefully removed from the house.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 22Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which of the following procedure is dealt under Section 164-A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
Medical examination of the victim of rape.
BAttendance of witness by police officer.
CRecording of confession statement.
DRecording of first information report by police officer.
Why A. Section 164-A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 mandates the medical examination of a victim of rape by a registered medical practitioner, to be conducted promptly and in accordance with prescribed procedures, to preserve evidence and ensure proper documentation of injuries.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 23Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which of the following is incorrect with respect to diary of proceedings in investigation as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
AThe statements of witnesses recorded during investigation shall be inserted in the diary.
BThe diary shall be duly paginated.
The diary may be used as evidence.
DCan be used by the police officers to refresh memory.
Why C. Under Section 172 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, the police diary is not admissible as evidence in a trial, but it may be used by the court to contradict the testimony of a police officer who has made entries in it, thereby allowing it to be used as evidence for impeachment purposes.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 24Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
In which of the following cases manner of committing offence is not re¬quired to be mentioned in the charge as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
A is accused of the theft of a certain article at a certain time and place.
BA is accused of cheating B at a given time and place.
CA is accused of disobeying a direction of the law with intent to save B from punishment.
DA is accused of giving false evidence at a given time and place.
Why A. Under Section 211 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, a charge must state the offence with which the accused is charged, and when the offence is theft, it is sufficient to allege the theft of a specific article at a specific time and place without detailing the manner in which it was committed.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 25Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which of the following offences may be tried summarily as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
AOffence under Section 454 of the IPC.
BOffence under Section 504 of the IPC.
COffence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years.
DOffence punishable with life imprisonment.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 26Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which of the following Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides for reference to High Court?
ASection 275
BSection 325
CSection 383
Section 395
Why D. Section 395 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 empowers the High Court to call for and examine the record of any proceeding before any inferior criminal court when it appears necessary in the interests of justice.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 27Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
A person accused of the following offence may not be granted bail under Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973: i. Accused of offence under Section 376AB of the IPC. ii. Accused of offence under Section 376DA of the IPC. iii. Accused of offence under Section 376DB of the IPC.
Ai & ii
Bii & iii
Ciii & i
i, ii & iii
Why D. Under Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, anticipatory bail cannot be granted to a person accused of an offence punishable with death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment for seven years or more, and offences under Sections 376AB, 376DA, and 376DB of the Indian Penal Code fall under this category as they carry mandatory life imprisonment or death.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 28Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which of the following act if done by any Magistrate, even in good faith without being empowered, shall vitiate the proceedings as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
ATender a pardon under Section 306 of CrPC.
BRecall a case and try it under Section 410 of the CrPC.
CAttaches property under Section 83 of the CrPC.
DHold an inquest under Section 176 of the CrPC.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 29Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following is material for deciding the jurisdiction of the Civil Court in the light of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
Averments made in the plaint
BAverments made in the written statement
CBoth (A) & (B)
DNeither (A) nor (B)
Why A. Averments made in the plaint are the sole basis for determining the jurisdiction of the Civil Court, as jurisdiction is assessed solely on the allegations pleaded by the plaintiff at the time of filing, not on subsequent evidence or defenses raised later.
Question 30Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following cannot be considered as the suit of civil nature for Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
ASuit for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings.
BSuit for rights of franchise.
CSuit for specific reliefs.
Suit relating to rights of worship.
Why D. A suit relating to rights of worship is not a suit of civil nature under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, because it pertains to religious rights and rituals, which the civil courts are barred from adjudicating as they involve matters of faith and religious practice beyond the scope of civil jurisdiction.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 31Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 makes the doctrine of res judicata applicable in representative suits?
ASection 11, Explanation V
Section 11, Explanation VI
CSection 11, Explanation VII
DSection 11, Explanation VIII
Why B. Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lays down the doctrine of res judicata, and Explanation VI specifically extends its application to representative suits by treating a decree in such a suit as binding on all persons represented, even if they were not parties in person.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 32Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
In which of the following situations a court will not issue summons for personal appearance to the defendant?
AIf defendant resides within the local limit of the court’s jurisdiction.
BIf defendant resides within 40 miles from the court.
If defendant resides 250 miles away from the court in an area having public conveyance available.
DWoman to whom Section 132 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 does not apply.
Why C. Under Section 27 of the Civil Procedure Code, a court shall not issue summons for personal appearance if the defendant resides more than one hundred miles from the court and public conveyance is available, as the distance renders personal attendance unnecessary and impractical.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 33Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
In which of the following situation plaintiff is precluded from bringing a fresh suit as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
ADismissal of suit where summons not served in consequence of plaintiff’s failure to pay costs.
BDismissal of suit because neither party appeared.
Dismissal of suit because plaintiff did not appear.
DDismissal of suit because plaintiff did not apply for fresh summons within given time limit once it returned unserved.
Why C. Under Order IX Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, if a suit is dismissed for non-appearance of the plaintiff, the plaintiff is barred from bringing a fresh suit on the same cause of action unless the court permits it on sufficient cause shown.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 34Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
How many times at max. may an adjournment be granted to a party dur¬ing hearing of the suit as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
ATwo times
Three times
CFour times
DNo limit prescribed
Why B. Under Section 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the court may extend the time for doing any act prescribed or allowed by the Code, but the total extension shall not exceed three times the original period granted.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 35Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following Amendment Act made the provision in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to produce a witness without a summons?
The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1976
BThe Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1999
CThe Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002
DSuch provision does not exist.
Why A. The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1976 introduced the provision allowing a witness to be produced without a formal summons, empowering the court to direct appearance through alternative means to ensure efficient disposal of cases.
Question 36Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following is not included in the word costs as provided under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
AThe expenses of the witnesses incurred.
BLegal fees and expenses incurred.
Fooding and lodging expenses incurred.
DAny other expenses incurred in connection with the proceedings.
Why C. Under Section 35 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, costs include expenses directly related to the litigation such as court fees, lawyer's fees, and other incidental costs, but do not include personal expenses like fooding and lodging incurred by a party during court proceedings.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 37Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
What period is prescribed under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for defendant to enter an appearance for filing address for service of notice on him in case of a suit where summary procedure is to be applied?
ASeven days from the date of receiving of summons.
Ten days from the date of receiving of summons.
CFifteen days from the date of receiving of summons.
DThirty days from the date of receiving of summons.
Why B. Under Section 127 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the defendant must enter an appearance and file an address for service of notice within ten days from the date of receiving the summons in a suit where summary procedure is to be applied.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 38Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Under which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 the appellate court may remit an issue for trial to lower court?
AOrder XLI Rule 23
BOrder XLI Rule 23-A
COrder XLI Rule 24
DOrder XLI Rule 25
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 39Evidence (IEA / BSA)
A is accused of the murder of B by beating him. Which of the following will not be considered as relevant fact forming part of the same transaction as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
AWhatever said by A or B at the time of beating.
BWhatever done by A or B at the time of beating.
CWhatever said by bystanders at the time of beating.
Whatever said by A or B a day before the day of beating.
Why D. Under Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, facts which are part of the same transaction as the offence are relevant, but statements made by the accused or victim a day before the beating are too remote in time and do not form part of the immediate transaction, hence they are not relevant.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 40Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Which of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 says that the confession to a police officer shall not be proved against him?
ASection 24
Section 25
CSection 26
DSection 27
Why B. Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that no confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 41Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Under which of the following provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 dying declaration may be admitted as evidence?
ASection 25
BSection 29
Section 32
DSection 37
Why C. Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 permits statements made by a person who is dead or cannot be found, or is incapable of giving evidence, or whose attendance cannot be procured without unreasonable delay or expense, to be admitted as evidence if the statement relates to the cause of their death or any circumstances of the transaction resulting in their death.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 42Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Which of the following is correct according to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 pertaining to proof of contents of the documents?
AContents of the documents shall be proved by primary evidence.
BContents of the documents may be proved by secondary evidence.
CContents of the documents shall be proved by both primary and secondary evidence.
Contents of documents may be proved either by primary or by secondary evidence.
Why D. Section 64 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides that the contents of documents may be proved either by primary evidence, which is the document itself produced for inspection, or by secondary evidence, such as certified copies or oral accounts of its contents when the original is unavailable.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 43Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Which of the following is a correct statement as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
ALeading questions may be asked in examination-in-chief.
Leading questions may be asked in cross-examination.
CLeading questions may be asked in re-examination.
DLeading questions cannot be asked in cross-examination.
Why B. Under Section 143 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, leading questions may be asked during cross-examination as a recognized exception to the general rule against leading questions, because the purpose of cross-examination is to test the credibility of the witness.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 44Evidence (IEA / BSA)
In which of the following case did the Supreme Court of India clarify the admissibility of electronic record as evidence?
Anvar P.V. v P.K. Basheer
BState of Haryana v Jai Singh
CState of Maharashtra v Natwarlal Damodardas Soni
DState of Punjab v Jagir Singh
Why A. The Supreme Court held that for an electronic record to be admissible as evidence, it must be accompanied by a certificate under Section 65B of the BSA, establishing its authenticity and compliance with procedural requirements.
Question 45Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Which of the following is incorrect statement in the light of Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
AConfession always goes against a person making it.
Admissions are conclusive as to the matters admitted.
CAdmissions may operate as an estoppel.
DConfession is a statement, written or oral, which is a direct admission of guilt.
Why B. Under Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, an admission is a statement that conclusively establishes the fact admitted, and no further proof is required to prove that fact.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 46Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Which of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to the hearsay rule?
Section 32(1)
BSection 32(2)
CSection 32(3)
DSection 32(5)
Why A. Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides that statements made by a person who is dead or cannot be found, or is incapable of giving evidence, or whose attendance cannot be procured without unreasonable delay or expense, are admissible if they relate to the cause of their death or any circumstances leading to it. This is a recognized exception to the hearsay rule.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 47Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following is not a recognized alternate dispute resolution mechanism under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
AArbitration
BConciliation
CLok Adalat
Negotiation
Why D. Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, recognizes arbitration, conciliation, mediation, and judicial settlement as alternate dispute resolution mechanisms; negotiation is not listed as a statutorily recognized method under this section.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 48ADR incl. Arbitration
Which of the following is incorrect statement with respect to Lok Adalat?
ANo court fee is required in Lok Adalat.
Lok Adalat can deal with all civil & criminal matters.
CAward of Lok Adalat is a deemed decree.
DNo appeal against the award of Lok Adalat is allowed.
Why B. Lok Adalat under Section 19 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, has jurisdiction to settle pending civil, criminal, and compoundable cases, including those at the pre-litigation stage, making it competent to deal with all civil and criminal matters that are amenable to compromise.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 49ADR incl. Arbitration
Which of the following is incorrect with respect to arbitration agreement as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
Arbitration agreement may be written as well as oral.
BArbitration agreement may be in the form of a separate agreement.
CArbitration agreement may be in the form of an arbitration clause in a contract.
DArbitration agreement may be for all or certain disputes which may arise between the parties.
Why A. Under Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an arbitration agreement may be in writing or oral, as long as it is evidenced in a record, including electronic communication, making the statement that it may be written as well as oral legally correct.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 50ADR incl. Arbitration
In which of the following circumstances an arbitrator may not be chal¬lenged as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
AWhen a justifiable doubt as to his independence arises.
BWhen a justifiable doubt as to his impartiality arises.
When he possesses the qualifications agreed by the party.
DWhen he becomes ineligible as per the seventh schedule of the Act.
Why C. Under Section 12 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an arbitrator may not be challenged if the parties have agreed to the qualifications that the arbitrator possesses, as the law recognizes the autonomy of parties to determine the criteria for arbitrator appointment.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 51Family Law
When may two persons be said to be related to each other by half-blood in accordance with the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
AWhen they are descended from a common ancestor by the same wife.
When they are descended from a common ancestor by different wives.
CWhen they are descended from a common ancestress by different husbands.
DWhen they are not descended from a common ancestor at all.
Why B. Two persons are related by half-blood when they share a common ancestor but have different mothers or different fathers, meaning they descend from the same ancestor through different wives or different husbands.
Question 52Family Law
Which of the following is generally not considered as a valid condition for a Hindu marriage as per the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
AThe parties should not have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
The parties should be within the degrees of prohibited relationship.
CThe parties should not be sapindas of each other.
DThe parties should not be suffering from epilepsy.
Why B. Under Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a marriage is void if the parties are within the degrees of prohibited relationship, making this a condition that invalidates the marriage rather than a valid one.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 53Family Law
Section 13(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for the following: i. Grounds for restitution of conjugal rights ii. Grounds for judicial separation iii. Grounds for divorce
Ai & ii
ii & iii
Ciii & i
DOnly iii
Why B. Section 13(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 lists specific grounds upon which a spouse may seek divorce, and judicial separation is a distinct remedy available under the same provision; restitution of conjugal rights is governed separately under Section 9, not Section 13(1).
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 54Family Law
What is the meaning of the batil marriage in Muslim Law?
AValid marriage
Void marriage
CVoidable marriage
DIrregular marriage
Why B. A batil marriage in Muslim Law is a void marriage, meaning it is invalid from the outset and produces no legal consequences, as it contravenes essential conditions of a valid marriage under the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937.
Question 55Family Law
What is ‘a contract of marriage which may be dissolved by the wife under a power delegated to her’ called under the Muslim Law?
ATalaq-us-sunnat
BTalaq-ul-biddat
Talaq-i-tafweez
DTalaq-a-hasan
Why C. Talaq-i-tafweez is the delegated right of divorce granted by the husband to the wife under Muslim Personal Law, allowing her to dissolve the marriage without judicial intervention, as recognized by the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937.
Question 56Family Law
A Hindu boy and a Hindu girl may be married under the following law: i. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ii. The Special Marriage Act, 1954
AOnly i is correct.
BOnly ii is correct.
Both i and ii are correct.
DNeither i nor ii is correct.
Why C. Both the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and the Special Marriage Act, 1954 permit marriage between two Hindus, as the latter provides a secular framework applicable to all citizens regardless of religion, including Hindus who choose to marry under it.
Question 57Family Law
Through which of the following Amendment Act the rights in the coparce¬nary property is made available to a girl child as well?
AThe Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2002
BThe Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2004
The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005
DThe Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2006
Why C. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 amended Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act to grant daughters equal coparcenary rights by birth, same as sons, in ancestral property, thereby removing gender discrimination in succession.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 58Family Law
What should be the age difference between the adoptive father and his adopted daughter for a valid adoption?
A15 years
B18 years
21 years
DNo specific age difference required.
Why C. Under Section 11 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, an adoptive father must be at least 21 years older than the adopted daughter for the adoption to be valid, as this age difference is a mandatory condition to ensure the legitimacy and protective intent of the adoption.
Question 59Public Interest Litigation
Which of the following case may be considered as the first reported case of PIL in India?
AS.P. Gupta v Union of India
Hussainara Khatoon v State of Bihar
CM.C. Mehta v Union of India
DKalyaneshwari v Union of India
Why B. The case established that Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, and under Section 226, the High Court may issue writs to enforce this right even on the petition of a public-spirited individual, thereby recognizing public interest litigation as a tool for protecting fundamental rights.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 60Public Interest Litigation
Who among the following is considered as the father of PIL in India?
AJustice S.R. Das
BJustice V.R. Krishna Iyer
Justice P.N. Bhagwati
DJustice H.R. Khanna
Why C. Justice P.N. Bhagwati is recognized as the father of PIL in India because he pioneered the expansion of locus standi to allow public-spirited individuals to file petitions on behalf of marginalized groups, thereby enabling judicial access to justice for those unable to approach the court themselves.
Question 61Public Interest Litigation
Against which of the following a PIL cannot be filed?
AAgainst a State Government
BAgainst Central Government
Against a private party
DAgainst Municipal Corporation
Why C. A Public Interest Litigation cannot be filed against a private party because Article 32 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights against the State, and not against private individuals or entities.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 62Public Interest Litigation
In the light of the guidelines issued by the Supreme Court of India on which of the following issue a PIL cannot be entertained by the Court?
ABonded labour matters.
Petition from jail for pre-mature release.
CMatters pertaining to neglected children.
DPetitions against police for refusing to register a case.
Why B. A petition from jail for premature release is a personal remedy seeking relief under executive or administrative discretion, and does not involve a public interest issue that affects a class of people or the public at large, which is the essential threshold for entertaining a public interest litigation under the Constitution.
Question 63Administrative Law
In which of the following landmark case it was held that Principles of Nat¬ural Justice were applicable not only to judicial and quasi-judicial functions, but also to administrative functions?
A.K. Kraipak v Union of India
BRam Jawaya Kapoor v State of Punjab
CSonik Industries Rajkot v Municipal Corporation, Rajkot
DManeka Gandhi v Union of India
Why A. The case established that the principles of natural justice apply to administrative actions when they affect the rights or interests of individuals, regardless of whether the function is classified as judicial, quasi-judicial, or purely administrative, under the constitutional guarantee of fair procedure.
Question 64Constitutional Law
In which of the following judgment did the Supreme Court comprehensively reconsider S.P. Sampath Kumar v Union of India case?
AJ.B. Chopra v Union of India
L. Chandra Kumar v Union of India
CR.K. Jain v Union of India
DS.K. Sarkar v Vinay Chandra Mishra
Why B. The Supreme Court in L. Chandra Kumar v Union of India held that the power of judicial review vested in the High Courts and the Supreme Court under the Constitution cannot be excluded even by statutes creating administrative tribunals, thereby overruling the earlier position in S.P. Sampath Kumar v Union of India.
Question 65Administrative Law
Who among the following defined administrative law as ‘the law relating to the control of governmental power’?
AIvor Jennings
Wade
CK.C. Davis
DGarner
Why B. Wade defined administrative law as the law relating to the control of governmental power, establishing it as a foundational principle for understanding how legal mechanisms restrain and regulate executive authority.
Question 66Professional Ethics & Contempt
What penalty is prescribed for persons illegally practising in courts under the Advocate Act, 1961?
AImprisonment upto 3 months
Imprisonment upto 6 months
CImprisonment upto 9 months
DImprisonment upto 12 months
Why B. Under Section 47 of the Advocate Act, 1961, any person who illegally practises as an advocate in any court or before any authority is punishable with imprisonment up to six months, or with fine, or with both.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 67Professional Ethics & Contempt
Which provision of the Advocate Act, 1961 empowers the Bar Council of India to prescribe the standard of professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates?
ASection 42
BSection 42A
CSection 48A
Section 49
Why D. Section 49 of the Advocate Act, 1961 empowers the Bar Council of India to prescribe standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates, as it specifically authorizes the Council to make rules regarding the conduct and discipline of advocates.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 68Professional Ethics & Contempt
Which of the following is incorrect according to the Bar Council of India Rules?
An Advocate can plead in any matter in which he is himself pecuniarily interested.
BAn advocate shall appear in court at all times only in the prescribed dress.
CAn Advocate shall not stand as a surety for his client.
DAn Advocate shall not influence the decision of a court by any improper means.
Why A. An Advocate is permitted to plead in any matter in which he is personally pecuniarily interested, as the Bar Council of India Rules do not prohibit such representation; the rule focuses on prohibiting conflicts of interest in representation, not on financial interest alone.
Question 69Professional Ethics & Contempt
Which of the following authority acts as an appellate authority against the order made by the disciplinary committee of the Bar Council of India?
AChairman of the Bar Council of India
BVice-chairman of the Bar Council of India
CHigh Courts
Supreme Court of India
Why D. Under Section 35 of the Advocates Act, 1961, any order passed by the disciplinary committee of the Bar Council of India may be appealed to the Supreme Court of India, which is the sole appellate authority vested with jurisdiction to hear such appeals.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 70Company Law
In which of the following situations a one person company (OPC) will mandatorily get converted into either private or public company?
AIn case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds twenty-five lakh rupees.
In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds fifty lakh rupees.
CIn case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds seventy-five lakh rupees.
DIn case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds one crore rupees.
Why B. Under Section 18 of the Companies Act, 2013, a one person company must mandatorily convert into a private or public company if its paid-up share capital exceeds fifty lakh rupees or its average annual turnover exceeds two crore rupees during the relevant period.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 71Company Law
What is the minimum number of directors required for a public company as per the Companies Act, 2013?
A2
3
C5
D7
Why B. As per Section 149(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, a public company must have a minimum of three directors.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 72Environmental Law
In which of the following case did the Supreme Court of India explain the Precautionary Principle in detail?
AVellore Citizens' Welfare Forum v Union of India
BA.P. Pollution Control Board v M.V. Nayudu
CIndian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v Union of India
DM.C. Mehta v Kamal Nath
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 73Environmental Law
Which of the following is a landmark case on the public trust doctrine in Environmental Law?
AVellore Citizens' Welfare Forum v Union of India
BOlga Tellis v Bombay Municipal Corporation
CIndian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v Union of India
M.C. Mehta v Kamal Nath
Why D. The case establishes that the public trust doctrine, under Article 21 of the Constitution of India, obligates the state to protect natural resources like rivers, forests, and air as essential elements of the right to life, and cannot be alienated or privatized for private gain.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 74Cyber Law
In which of the following cases was Section 66A of the Information Tech¬nology Act, 2000 struck down by the Supreme Court?
Shreya Singhal v Union of India
BK.A. Abbas v Union of India
CKartar Singh v State of Punjab
DManeka Gandhi v Union of India
Why A. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 was struck down because it violated the right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution by being overly broad, vague, and enabling arbitrary censorship of online communication.
Question 75Cyber Law
In which of the following case an electronic record shall not be attributed to the originator as per the Information Technology Act, 2000?
AElectronic record sent by the originator himself.
BElectronic record sent by an authorised person.
CElectronic record sent by an automated system programmed by him.
Electronic record sent by an unauthorized person.
Why D. As per Section 13 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record shall not be attributed to the originator if it was sent by an unauthorized person, because attribution requires that the record be sent with the originator's authority or by a person acting under their control.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 76Labour & Industrial Law
What is the maximum period for which any woman shall be entitled to maternity benefit under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?
A6 weeks
B8 weeks
C12 weeks
26 weeks
Why D. Under Section 5 of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, a woman is entitled to maternity benefit for a period of twenty-six weeks, which includes not more than eight weeks preceding the expected date of delivery.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 77Labour & Industrial Law
For what duration is a woman entitled to leave with wages for tubectomy operation as per the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?
2 weeks
B4 weeks
C6 weeks
D8 weeks
Why A. Under Section 9A of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, a woman is entitled to leave with wages for a period of two weeks for the purpose of tubectomy operation.
Question 78Labour & Industrial Law
What should be the minimum number of workers originally employed in any factory for having at least one canteen in the factory as per the Factories Act, 1948?
A100 workers
B150 workers
C200 workers
250 workers
Why D. As per Section 46 of the Factories Act, 1948, every factory employing not less than 250 workers must provide and maintain a canteen for the use of workers.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 79Labour & Industrial Law
Who among the following is not included in the definition of a workman as per the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
AA supervisor drawing a monthly salary of 16,000.
BA supervisor drawing monthly salary of 18,000.
CA supervisor drawing monthly salary of 110,000.
A supervisor drawing monthly salary of 112,000.
Why D. Under Section 2(s) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, a person drawing a monthly salary exceeding fifteen thousand rupees is excluded from the definition of workman, and a supervisor earning 112,000 per month falls above this threshold, thus not qualifying as a workman.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 80Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Who has defined tort as ’tortious liability arises from the breach of duty primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redress- ible by an action for unliquidated damages’?
ALindsell
BPollock
CSalmond
Winfield
Why D. Winfield defined tort as a civil wrong for which the remedy is a common law action for unliquidated damages, arising from a breach of a duty primarily fixed by law towards persons generally.
Question 81Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
The Gloucester Grammar School case relates to which of the following im¬portant maxims?
Damnum sine injuria
BInjuria sine damno
CUbi jus ibi remedium
DVolenti non fit injuria
Why A. Damnum sine injuria refers to a situation where a person suffers harm or loss, but without any violation of a legal right; such harm is not actionable in law, which is the core principle illustrated in the Gloucester Grammar School case.
Question 82Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Which of the following provision of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 relates to no fault liability?
Section 140
BSection 151
CSection 162
DSection 128
Why A. Section 140 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 establishes no fault liability, meaning compensation is payable to victims of road accidents without the need to prove negligence or fault on the part of the vehicle owner or driver.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 83Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
How many consumer rights are identified under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
A2
B4
6
D8
Why C. Section 2(9) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines 'consumer' and explicitly recognizes six consumer rights, which are the right to safety, the right to be informed, the right to choose, the right to be heard, the right to seek redressal, and the right to consumer education.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 84Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Which of the following body constituted under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is authorised to render advice on promotion and protection of consumers’ rights under the Act?
ACentral Consumer Protection Authority.
BCentral Consumer Protection Council
CState Consumer Protection Authority
DState Consumer Protection Council
Question 85Law related to Taxation
Which of the following provision of the Constitution of India states that no tax can be levied or collected except by authority of law?
AArticle 246
BArticle 256
CArticle 260
Article 265
Why D. Article 265 of the Constitution of India provides that no tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law, establishing the fundamental principle that taxation requires explicit legal authorization and cannot be imposed arbitrarily by the state.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 86Law related to Taxation
Which of the following would be the first previous year in case of a business or profession newly set up on 31st March, 2020 as per the Income Tax Act, 1961?
AStart from 1st April, 2019 and will end on 31st March, 2020.
Start from 31st March, 2020 and will end on 31st March, 2020.
CStart from 1st April, 2020 and will end on 31st December, 2020.
DStart from 1st January, 2020 and will end on 31st March, 2020.
Why B. For a business or profession newly set up on 31st March, 2020, the previous year begins on the day the business commences and ends on the next 31st March, making the first previous year span from 31st March, 2020 to 31st March, 2020 — a single day, as the income year is defined by the accounting period starting with the commencement of the business.
Question 87Law related to Taxation
As per the Income Tax Act, 1961, a person is said to be resident of India in any previous year if he had been in India for a period of the following number of days in the previous year:
A180 days
182 days
C184 days
D186 days
Why B. Under Section 6 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, an individual is deemed a resident of India in a previous year if they are present in India for 182 days or more during that year, as this is the statutory threshold for residential status based on physical presence.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 88Law related to Taxation
Income is defined under which of the following provision of the Income Tax Act, 1961?
ASection 2(31)
Section 2(24)
CSection 2(9)
DSection 3
Why B. Section 2(24) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 defines the term 'income' for the purposes of the Act, and includes various receipts that are deemed to be income even if not traditionally classified as such.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 89Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which of the following is not a fraud as per the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
AA promise made without intention of performing it.
BAn active concealment of fact by one having knowledge of the fact.
Mere silence if not duty bound to speak.
DAny act or omission law specifically declares to be fraudulent.
Why C. Under Section 17 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, fraud includes active concealment, false representation, or any act intended to deceive, but mere silence, unless there is a duty to speak, does not amount to fraud.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 90Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which of the following statement is correct if A, intending to deceive B, falsely represents that five hundred maunds of indigo are made annually at A’s factory, and thereby induces B to buy the factory?
AContract is void ab initio.
BContract is voidable at the option of A.
Contract is voidable at the option of B.
DContract is voidable at the option of A & B.
Why C. Under Section 18 of the Indian Contract Act, a contract is voidable at the option of the party whose consent was obtained by fraud, and here A's false representation about indigo production constitutes fraud, making the contract voidable at B's option.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 91Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which of the following injunction can be granted only by the decree made at hearing and upon the merit of the suit?
ATemporary injunction
Perpetual injunction
CMandatory injunction
DProhibitory injunction
Why B. A perpetual injunction can be granted only by a decree made after hearing and upon the merits of the suit, as provided under Section 38 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 92Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
A stipulation in a bond for payment of compound interest on failure to pay simple interest at the same rate as was payable upon the principal is not a penalty within the meaning of which of the following provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
ASection 73
Section 74
CSection 75
DSection 76
Why B. Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides that when a contract is breached, the party suffering the breach is entitled to reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount named in the contract, and a stipulation for compound interest on default of simple interest is not considered a penalty under this section.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 93Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
What is the default interest payable under Section 63A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A6% per annum
B8% per annum
9% per annum
DNo default rate prescribed.
Why C. Under Section 63A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, if a mortgagee is entitled to interest and no rate is specified, the default rate is 9% per annum.
Question 94Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which of the following is the time limit given under Section 17 of the Trans¬fer of Property Act, 1882?
ALife of the transferee
A period of 18 years from the date of transfer.
CEither (A) or (B) whichever is longer
DNeither (A) nor (B)
Why B. Section 17 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, provides that a transfer of property made with the intention to defeat or delay creditors is voidable at the option of any such creditor, and the period for challenging such a transfer is 18 years from the date of transfer.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 95Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument as per the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
APromissory note
Hundi
CBill of exchange
DCheque
Why B. A Hundi is a negotiable instrument under Section 13 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, as it is a written promise to pay a sum of money, payable on demand or at a fixed date, and is transferable by delivery or endorsement.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 96Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
In the light of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, at what rate interest will be charged if the rate of interest is not mentioned on the negotiable instruments?
A6% per annum
B10% per annum
18% per annum
D20% per annum
Why C. Under Section 80 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, if no rate of interest is specified on a negotiable instrument, interest shall be calculated at the rate of 18% per annum from the date of dishonor until payment is made.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 97Land Acquisition Act
Within what period from the date of publication of the declaration, if no award is made, the entire proceedings for the acquisition of land shall lapse as per the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013?
A6 months
12 months
C18 months
D24 months
Why B. Under Section 24 of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, if no award is made within twelve months from the date of publication of the declaration, the entire acquisition proceedings shall lapse.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 98Land Acquisition Act
What is the minimum percentage of affected families that need to give their prior consent for acquiring land for private companies as per the Right To Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013?
A75%
80%
C90%
D100%
Why B. Under Section 26(2) of the Right To Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, for land acquisition by private companies, the prior consent of at least 80% of the affected families is mandatory.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 99Intellectual Property Law
Imagine an IPL team sets up a company to sell its own range of clothes. What type of intellectual property can the team use to show that the clothes are made by them?
APatents
BGeographical Indications
Trademarks
DRegistered designs
Why C. Trademarks are used to distinguish goods or services of one entity from others, and under Section 2(zb) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, a trademark includes a mark capable of being represented graphically and capable of distinguishing the goods of one person from those of others, which applies to the IPL team's clothing brand.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 100Intellectual Property Law
How long do patents usually last for?
A10 years
20 years
C25 years
D50 years
Why B. Under Section 53 of the Patents Act, 1970, a patent grants the proprietor exclusive rights for a term of twenty years from the date of filing the application, and no longer.
The Bar Council of India typically declares the AIBE result about 30 to 40 days after the exam. Until then, this unofficial answer key lets you estimate your score immediately.
The passing cutoff is 45% (45/100) for General/OBC candidates and 40% (40/100) for SC/ST/PwD candidates.
No. AIBE has no negative marking, so every correct answer earns one mark while wrong or unanswered questions simply earn zero.
No. This is an unofficial answer key with detailed solutions, provided to help you estimate your score. Always verify against the official key published on allindiabarexamination.com.
Use the free score calculator. Enter the option you marked for each question, either as a quick answer sheet or one question at a time, and get your exact score, cutoff verdict, and subject breakdown instantly.
This is an unofficial answer key prepared for educational purposes and to help candidates estimate their score before the official result. Answers reflect our expert analysis and may differ from the final Bar Council of India key. Always verify against the official key at allindiabarexamination.com .
Cassie
