All 99 questions of AIBE-17 (2022) Set C with the correct answer, an original explanation, and the exact bare-act provision a tap away. No negative marking. The qualifying cutoff is 45 of 100 for General and OBC, 40 of 100 for SC, ST and PwD.
AIBE 17 (XXI) Set C Answer Key 2022 with Solutions
Answer key at a glance
Question 1Family Law
The Section 12 of Hindu Maintenance and Adoption Act, 1956 deals with
ARights of adoptive parents to dispose of their properties
Effects of adoption
CPresumption as to the document relating to adoption
DCancellation of adoption
Why B. Section 12 of the Hindu Maintenance and Adoption Act, 1956 outlines the legal effects of adoption, including the adopted child's right to inherit property from the adoptive parents and the severance of ties with the birth family.
Question 2Public Interest Litigation
Which of the following categories of cases will not be entertained as Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?
AFamily Pension
BPetitions from riot victims
CNeglected Children 2
Landlord-Tenant matter
Why D. Landlord-Tenant matters are private disputes governed by civil law and do not involve a violation of fundamental rights under Article 32 of the Constitution, which is the sole basis for entertaining Public Interest Litigation.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 3Public Interest Litigation
Who is known as Father of Public Interest Litigation in India?
AJustice A. N. Ray
BJustice Y. V. Chandrachud
CJustice R. S. Pathak
Justice P. N. Bhagwati
Why D. Justice P. N. Bhagwati is recognized as the Father of Public Interest Litigation in India for pioneering the expansion of locus standi, allowing any public-spirited individual to approach the court on behalf of marginalized groups unable to seek justice themselves, thereby transforming the judiciary into an accessible instrument of social justice under the Constitution.
Question 4Public Interest Litigation
Which of the following is not a real purpose of Public Interest Litigation?
AVindication of the rule of law
BFacilitate effective access to Justice
CMeaningful realization of Fundamental Rights
Getting famous and making wealth
Why D. Public Interest Litigation is intended to uphold constitutional rights and public welfare, not to serve personal gain such as fame or wealth, as the Constitution mandates that legal action must serve the public interest, not private advantage.
Question 5Constitutional Law
In Hussainara Khatoon Vs. State of Bihar, ........... emerged as a basic fundamental right.
Right to Speedy Justice
BRight to Clean Environment
CRight to Free Legal Aid
DNone of these
Why A. The Right to Speedy Justice is an essential component of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution of India, as delay in trial undermines the fairness and effectiveness of justice.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 6Constitutional Law
Which of the following writ can be issued against usurpation of public office?
AWrit of Mandamus
BWrit of Certiorari
Writ of Quo Warranto
DWrit of Prohibition
Why C. The writ of Quo Warranto is issued under Article 226 of the Constitution of India to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office and to prevent unlawful usurpation of such office by someone not legally entitled to it.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 7Administrative Law
Ridge V. Baldwin’s case deals with
ACorporation
Natural Justice
CState Liability
DDelegated Legislation
Why B. Natural Justice is the foundational principle that ensures fairness in administrative decisions, requiring that no one be condemned unheard and that decisions be made without bias, as guaranteed by the Constitution of India.
Question 8Administrative Law
Meaning of ”Audi alteram partem” is
A person cannot be condemned without being heard
BAn adjudicating authority must give a speaking order
CNo man can be a judge in his own case
DNo one should fear the courts 7
Why A. The principle of audi alteram partem, which means 'hear the other side', is a fundamental aspect of natural justice under the Constitution of India, ensuring that no person is deprived of their rights without a fair opportunity to be heard.
Question 9Professional Ethics & Contempt
Rules made by the Bar Council of India in exercising its rule-making power under ...........
AThe Advocates Act, 1951
BThe Advocates Act, 1954
The Advocates Act, 1961
DThe Advocates Act, 1964
Why C. The Bar Council of India derives its rule-making power exclusively from Section 49 of the Advocates Act, 1961, which authorizes it to make rules for the conduct and discipline of advocates, the procedure for enrollment, and other matters necessary for the administration of the legal profession.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 10Family Law
Which one of the following is not a ground for divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act?
AMental Disorder
BVenereal Disease in communicable form
CIncurable Unsound Mind
Living separately for less than three months.
Why D. Under Section 13 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, desertion must continue for a continuous period of not less than two years to constitute a ground for divorce; living separately for less than three months does not meet this statutory threshold and therefore cannot be a ground for divorce.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 11Family Law
Indian Christians can obtain divorce under which of the following enactments?
ASpecial Marriage Act, 1954
BChristian Marriage Act, 1872
Indian Divorce Act, 1869
DSpecial Marriage Act, 1872
Why C. Indian Christians can obtain divorce under the Indian Divorce Act, 1869, as it is the specific statute governing dissolution of marriage for Christians in India, providing the exclusive legal framework for their divorce proceedings.
Question 12Professional Ethics & Contempt
If any advocate is aggrieved by an order of Disciplinary Committee of State Bar Council made under Section 35 of the Advocate Act or Advocate General of the State may prefer an appeal to the Bar Council of India within ........... days of the date of communication of order.
A30
B45
60
D90
Why C. Under Section 35 of the Advocate Act, an appeal against an order of the Disciplinary Committee of a State Bar Council may be preferred to the Bar Council of India within sixty days of the date of communication of the order.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 13Company Law
ABC Private Limited Company choose to convert itself into a Public Company. It can do so by altering its Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association and 11 by passing ............
AOrdinary Resolution
Special Resolution
CBoard Resolution
DNone of these
Why B. Under Section 13 of the Companies Act, 2013, a private company seeking to convert into a public company must alter its Memorandum and Articles of Association by passing a Special Resolution, as this is the mandatory procedural requirement for such a fundamental change in the company's status.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 14Company Law
”Doctrine of lifting of or piercing the corporate veil” is associated with
ALabour Law
Company Law
CBanking Law
DNone of these
Why B. The doctrine of lifting the corporate veil is a legal principle under Company Law that allows courts to disregard the separate legal personality of a company in exceptional circumstances, such as fraud or improper conduct, to hold the individuals behind the company accountable, as governed by the Companies Act, 2013.
Question 15Environmental Law
Under which Section of The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, an appeal to National Green Tribunal (NGT) lies?
ASection 4A
Section 5A
CSection 6A
DSection 7A
Why B. Section 5A of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, provides for the right to appeal to the National Green Tribunal against orders, decisions, or directions issued under this Act.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 16Constitutional Law
Which one of the following Fundamental Duties relates to Environmental Protection?
AArticle 51A (b)
Article 51A (g)
CArticle 51A (j)
DArticle 51A (k)
Why B. Article 51A(g) of the Constitution of India imposes the Fundamental Duty upon every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 17Cyber Law
Mr. A who was aggrieved by an order made by Controller or an adjudicating officer. Made an appeal to Cyber Appellate Tribunal. Later Mr. A aggrieved by an order of Cyber Appellate Tribunal, may prefer an appeal .........
AIn any District Court
BIn Higher Tribunal
Only in High Court
DOnly in Supreme Court
Why C. Under Section 48 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, an appeal against an order of the Cyber Appellate Tribunal lies only in the High Court.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 18Cyber Law
Mr. X, a person who is intended by Mr. Y an originator to receive the electronic record is under the IT Act, known as ..............
AIntermediary
BOriginators Agent
Addressee
DKey Holder
Why C. Under Section 2(1)(a) of the Information Technology Act, 2000, the term 'addressee' means a person who is intended by the originator to receive the electronic record, making 'Addressee' the correct legal term for Mr. X in this scenario.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 19Labour & Industrial Law
The minimum number of members required for registration of a trade union is-
A2
B3
C5
7
Why D. Under Section 4 of the Trade Unions Act, 1926, a trade union must have at least seven members to be eligible for registration, as this is the minimum number prescribed by law for the formation and legal recognition of a trade union.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 20Labour & Industrial Law
The text of the Certified Standing Orders shall be prominently posted by the employer in .......... and in the language understood by the majority of his workmen.
AHindi
English
CDevanagari Script
DLanguage specified in 8th Schedule of the Constitution
Why B. Under Section 7 of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, the certified standing orders must be prominently posted in English and in the language understood by the majority of the workmen, making English a mandatory language for posting regardless of the majority language.
Question 21Professional Ethics & Contempt
An advocate may, while practicing, take up teaching of Law in any educational institution which is affiliated to a University, so long as the hours during which he is so engaged in the teaching of Law do not exceed ........ hours in a day.
A5
3
C2
D4
Why B. Under Section 49(1)(c)(ii) of the Bar Council of India Rules, an advocate may teach law in a university-affiliated institution, but not for more than three hours in a day.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 22Professional Ethics & Contempt
In which of the following landmark cases the advocate was held guilty of professional misconduct as he had forged the court order?
Pratap Narain V. Y. P. Raheja
BVikramaditya V. Smt. Jamila Khatoon
CBabulal Jain V. Subhash Jain
DSmt. P. Pankajam V. B. H. Chandrashekhar
Why A. The advocate was held guilty of professional misconduct for forging a court order, which violates the fundamental duty of integrity and honesty expected of a legal practitioner under the Bar Council of India Rules.
Question 23Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Suppose road accident occurs, then being an Advocate what is the correct way of approaching the situation?
FIR ¿ Petition ¿ Summon to Insurance Company
BPetition ¿ FIR ¿ Summon to Insurance Company 18
CSummon to Insurance Company ¿ Petition ¿ FIR
DFIR ¿ Summon to Insurance Company ¿ Petition
Why A. Under Section 154 of the BNSS, a First Information Report must be filed at the earliest to initiate criminal proceedings for a road accident; thereafter, a petition may be filed before the appropriate forum to seek compensation, and only after that can a summon be issued to the insurance company to appear and respond to the claim.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 24Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
The principle of ”Ubi jus ibi idem remedium” was recognized in
AWinterbottom V. Wright
BChapman V. Pickersgill
Ashby V. White
DRylands V. Fletcher
Why C. The principle that where there is a right, there must be a remedy, was established in Ashby v. White, where the court held that a voter's legal right to vote could not be denied without providing a remedy for its violation.
Question 25Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Gloucester Grammar School Case is a landmark case based on which of the following maxim?
Damnum sine injuria
BInjuria sine damnum
CVolenti non fit injuria
DAudi alteram partem
Why A. Damnum sine injuria means harm without legal injury — it establishes that not every loss or damage gives rise to a legal claim; there must be a violation of a legal right for liability to arise.
Question 26Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission under Consumer Protection Act, 2019 shall have the jurisdiction to complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds Rs. ..........
A1 Crore
10 Crores
C50 Crores
D100 Crores
Why B. Under Section 34 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission has jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds Rs. 10 Crores.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 27Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Under Section 41 of Consumer Protection Act, 2019 an appeal from the order of District Commission lies to ............
State Commission
BConsumer Tribunal
CNational Commission
DHigh Court
Why A. Under Section 41 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, an appeal against an order of the District Commission lies to the State Commission, as it is the designated appellate authority for such orders within the consumer dispute redressal hierarchy.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 28Law related to Taxation
For an individual to be deemed resident in India in any previous year, one of the condition is:
If he is in India for a period of 182 days or more during the previous year.
BIf he is in India for a period of 180 days or more during the previous year.
CIf he is in India for a period of 181 days or more during the previous year.
DIf he is in India for a period of 360 days or more during the previous year.
Why A. Under Section 6 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, an individual is deemed resident in India if he is present in India for a period of 182 days or more during the previous year, as this is a statutory threshold that determines residential status without requiring additional conditions.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 29Law related to Taxation
Mr. Kapoor purchased a residential house in January, 2021 for Rs. 80,00,000. He sold the house in April, 2022 for Rs. 94,00,000. In this case, the gain of Rs. 14,00,000 arising on account of sale of residential house will be charged to tax under which of the following head?
Income from capital gains
BIncome from house property
CIncome from profits and gains from business or profession
DIncome from other sources
Why A. Under Section 45 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, any profit or gain arising from the transfer of a capital asset is chargeable to tax as income from capital gains, and a residential house is a capital asset.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 30Labour & Industrial Law
A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under the Factories Act, 1948 is called as ...............
Occupier
BManaging Director
CChairman 24
DManager
Why A. Under Section 2(n) of the Factories Act, 1948, the term 'occupier' means the person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory, and this legal definition assigns responsibility for compliance with the Act to that person.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 31Labour & Industrial Law
If the factory employs more than 1000 workers, they should appoint qualified ........ to carry out the prescribed duties.
Safety officer
BWelfare officer
CDevelopment officer 25
DNone of these
Why A. Under Section 40B of the Factories Act, 1948, a factory employing more than one thousand workers must appoint a qualified safety officer to perform the duties prescribed under the Act.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 32Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
B, the proprietor of a newspaper, publishes at A’s request, a libel upon C in the paper, and A agrees to indemnify B against the consequences of the publication, and all costs and damages of any action in respect thereof. B is sued by C and has to pay damages, and also incurs expenses. Decide in the light of Section 224 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
A is not liable to B upon indemnity. 26
BA is liable to B upon indemnity.
CA is not liable to C upon indemnity.
DNone of these
Why A. Under Section 224 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a person who indemnifies another against the consequences of an unlawful act is not liable to indemnify for any loss arising from that unlawful act; since publication of a libel is unlawful, A cannot be held liable to B for the damages and costs incurred.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 33Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
A person whom the agent names to act for the principal in the business of agency, under the express or implied authority to name, is called ...........
ASub-agent 27
Substituted Agent
CAgent
DProcured Agent
Why B. Under Section 194 of the Indian Contract Act, a person named by an agent to act for the principal in the business of agency, with express or implied authority to do so, is called a substituted agent, and such an agent is directly responsible to the principal.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 34Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
A .......... injunction can only be granted by the decree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit; the defendant is thereby perpetually enjoined from the assertion of a right or from the commission of an act, which could be contrary to the rights of the plaintiff.
ATemporary 28
Perpetual
CBoth Temporary and Perpetual
DNone of these
Why B. Under Section 37 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a perpetual injunction is granted only after a hearing on the merits of the suit, and it permanently restrains the defendant from asserting a right or committing an act that infringes upon the plaintiff's rights.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 35Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
According to Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided in .........
AThe Specific Relief Act, 1963 29
The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
CThe Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
DThe Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Why B. Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, provides that recovery of specific immovable property must be sought in accordance with the procedures laid down in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, which governs all civil suits for possession.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 36Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Where the mortgagor delivers possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee, and authorises him to retain such possession until payment of the 30 mortgage-money, and to receive the rents and profits accruing from the property in lieu of interest, or in payment of the mortgage-money, the transaction is called an ....... mortgage.
AConditional
BEnglish
CSimple
Usufructuary
Why D. Under Section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a usufructuary mortgage is defined as a mortgage where the mortgagor delivers possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee, who is authorised to retain possession until payment and to receive rents and profits in lieu of interest or as payment of the mortgage-money.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 37Law related to Taxation
Mr. Manjot is a trader supplying goods from his M/s Singh Traders. The office of the firm is located in Delhi whereas its godowns are located in the State of Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Jammu Kashmir (JK) respectively. M/s Singh Traders made the following intra-state supplies from different States during the current financial year:
ADelhi, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and JK
Delhi, Uttar Pradesh and JK
CDelhi and Uttar Pradesh
DDelhi
Why B. Under Section 22 of the GST Act, a person is required to register in every State from which they make taxable supplies, regardless of where the business office is located. Since M/s Singh Traders makes intra-state supplies from Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, and Jammu Kashmir, registration is mandatory in each of these States.
Question 38Law related to Taxation
The primary GST slabs for any regular taxpayers are presently pegged at (A) 0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, 26%
A0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, 26%
B0%, 6%, 12%, 18%, 28%
0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, 28%
D0%, 5%, 12%, 16%, 28%
Why C. The Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 prescribes five standard GST rates for regular taxpayers, which are 0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, and 28%, as notified under the law to ensure uniformity and simplicity in tax structure across goods and services.
Question 39Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which of the following is not a Negotiable Instrument as defined under The Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881?
APromissory Note
BBill of Exchange
CCheque
Billing Receipt
Why D. A Billing Receipt is not a negotiable instrument because it does not satisfy the requirements of Section 13 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which defines a negotiable instrument as a document that promises or orders payment to a specified person or bearer, and is freely transferable by delivery or endorsement — a billing receipt lacks these essential characteristics.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 40Land Acquisition Act
According to Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 appropriate Government can acquire the land for which of the following purposes? 1. For strategic purposes relating to naval, military, air force, and armed forces of the Union 2. Project for water harvesting and water conservation structures, sanitation 3. Project for project affected families 4. Project for sports, health care, tourism, transportation or space programme
A1, 2 and 3
B2, 3 and 4
C1, 2 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4
Why D. The Act permits acquisition for public purpose, including strategic defense needs, infrastructure for water and sanitation, rehabilitation of affected families, and development in sectors like sports, health, tourism, transportation, and space, as these are explicitly recognized as legitimate public purposes under the law.
Question 41Land Acquisition Act
’Specified person’ under Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 means any person other than ...............
AAppropriate Government
BGovernment company
CAssociation of persons or trust or society wholly or partially aided by the appropriate Government or controlled by the appropriate Government
All of these
Why D. A specified person under the Act includes any individual or entity affected by land acquisition, but explicitly excludes the government or its agencies acting in their official capacity, as the law is designed to protect private landowners and displaced persons, not the acquiring authority itself.
Question 42Intellectual Property Law
Who shall be the Registrar of Trade Marks for the purposes of Trade Marks Act, 1999?
Controller-General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks
BController-General of Copyright, Designs and Trade Marks
CDirector-General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks
DDirector-General of Copyright, Designs and Trade Marks
Why A. Under Section 2(1)(b) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, the Controller-General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks is designated as the Registrar of Trade Marks, and this statutory definition is binding for all purposes under the Act.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 43Intellectual Property Law
Which one of the following is not a type of IPR?
ACopyright
BPatents
CDesigns
Historical Indications
Why D. Historical Indications is not a recognized form of intellectual property right under the Indian Copyright Act, 1957, as the Act protects only specific categories like literary, dramatic, musical, and artistic works, and related rights — not historical or chronological data as a proprietary interest.
Question 44Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
In which of the following cases it was decided that a contract with a minor is void?
ACarlill V. Carbolic Smokes Ball Co
BChinnaih V. Ramaiah
Mohori Bibee V. Dharmodas Ghose
DHarvey V. Facey
Why C. A contract with a minor is void under Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act because a minor is not competent to contract, and this principle was established in Mohori Bibee V. Dharmodas Ghose.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 45Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which of the following is/are CORRECT with respect to ”Declaratory Decrees” under The Specific Relief Act, 1963?
ASection 34 of the said Act deals with it.
BIt is discretionary in nature.
Both (Section 34 of the said Act deals with it) and (It is discretionary in nature)
DNone of these
Why C. A declaratory decree under Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is a judicial declaration of rights without any consequential relief, and its grant is discretionary — the court may refuse it even if the plaintiff has a legal right, if it deems the relief unnecessary or inappropriate.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 46Constitutional Law
By which of the following Amendment Act of 1985, Anti Defection Law was added in the Constitution of India?
A51st Constitutional Amendment
52nd Constitutional Amendment
C53rd Constitutional Amendment
D54th Constitutional Amendment
Why B. The 52nd Constitutional Amendment added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India under Section 10, which introduces the Anti-Defection Law to prevent legislators from defecting from their political parties for personal gain.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 47Constitutional Law
In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court decided that, a constitutional amendment is a ’law’ within the meaning of Article 13(2) and therefore if it violates any of the fundamental rights it may be declared void?
ASajjan Singh V. State of Rajasthan
BKeshvananda Bharati V. State of Kerala
CIndra Sawhney V. Union of India
Golak Nath V. State of Punjab
Why D. The Supreme Court held that a constitutional amendment is a 'law' within the meaning of Article 13(2), and therefore any amendment that takes away or abridges a fundamental right is void to the extent of such violation.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 48Constitutional Law
Uniform Civil Code in India is:
AFundamental Rights
Directive Principles of State Policy
CGovernment Policy
DConstitutional Right
Why B. The Uniform Civil Code is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Article 44 of the Constitution of India, which directs the State to strive for a uniform civil code for all citizens, irrespective of religion, to promote national integration and equality.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 49Constitutional Law
As per Article 16, No citizen shall, on grounds only of ........ or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of, any employment or office under the State.
religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence
Breligion, age, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence
Creligion, race, age, sex, descent, place of birth, residence
Dreligion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, age
Why A. Article 16 of the Constitution of India prohibits discrimination in public employment on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence, ensuring equal opportunity for all citizens regardless of these personal characteristics.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 50Constitutional Law
The minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be .............
A2
B3
C4
5
Why D. Under Article 145 of the Constitution of India, a bench of at least five Judges must sit to decide any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution or to hear any reference under Article 143.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 51Constitutional Law
According to Article 300A of the Constitution of India, No ........... shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.
person
Bcitizen
Cforeigner
DIndian
Why A. Article 300A of the Constitution of India protects the right to property by stating that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law, establishing that only a person, as a legal subject, can claim this protection.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 52Constitutional Law
Which of the following is not ’Law’ according to Article 13 of the Indian Constitution?
ARule
BBy-laws
CCustom or usage
DNone of these
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 53Constitutional Law
Which of the following Schedule deals with Union list, State list and Concurrent list in the Constitution of India?
Schedule 7
BSchedule 10
CSchedule 11
DSchedule 12
Why A. Schedule 7 of the Constitution of India contains the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List, as provided under Section 7, which enumerates the legislative powers of the Union and the States.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 55Constitutional Law
Constitutional provisions of Fundamental Rights (FRs) are given under which part of the Constitution of India?
APart I
BPart II
Part III
DPart IV
Why C. Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India, which guarantees essential liberties to all citizens and is enforceable by the courts.
Question 56Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Provisions for Right of Private Defence is given between ........ of IPC.
ASections 74-84
Sections 96-106
CSections 107-120
DSections 141-160
Why B. The right of private defence is governed by Sections 96 to 106 of the Indian Penal Code, which collectively define its scope, limits, and circumstances under which it may be exercised against offences affecting the human body or property.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 57Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
The consent is not a valid consent under Section 90 of IPC:
AIf given under fear of injury or misconception of fact.
BIf given by person of unsound mind.
CIf given by child below 12 years of age.
All of these
Why D. Under Section 90 of the IPC, consent is not valid if it is given under fear of injury, under a misconception of fact, by a person of unsound mind, or by a child under twelve years of age — all of these invalidate consent as a matter of law.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 58Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Causing of the death of a child in the mother’s womb is not homicide as provided under
AExplanation III to Section 300
Explanation III to Section 299
CExplanation III to Section 301
DExplanation III to Section 302
Why B. Explanation III to Section 299 of the Indian Penal Code clarifies that the causing of the death of a child in the mother's womb is not homicide, as the child is not yet a person in law until it has been born alive.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 59Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Punishment for Defamation under Indian Penal Code is simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to ........ or with fine or with both.
2 Years
B3 Years
C4 Years
D5 Years
Why A. Under Section 500 of the Indian Penal Code, the punishment for defamation is simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 60Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Assault or criminal force to women with intent to outrage her modesty under IPC is which kind of offence?
ANon-Cognizable and Bailable
BCognizable and Bailable
Cognizable and Non-Bailable
DNon-Cognizable and Non-Bailable
Why C. Under Section 354 of the IPC, assault or criminal force to a woman with intent to outrage her modesty is a cognizable and non-bailable offence, as it is listed in the First Schedule of the CrPC as such, and the seriousness of the offence warrants immediate arrest and denial of bail as a matter of legal principle.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 61Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
‘A’ places men with firearms at the outlets of a building and tells ‘Z’ that they will fire at ‘Z’, if ‘Z’ attempts to leave the building. ‘A’ is guilty of:
Awrongful confinement
Bwrongful restraint
Both wrongful confinement and wrongful restraint
DNone of these
Why C. Under Section 107 of the BNS, wrongful restraint occurs when a person is prevented from proceeding in any direction, and wrongful confinement occurs when a person is restrained within limits that circumscribe their movement entirely; here, ‘A’ has both prevented ‘Z’ from leaving the building and confined ‘Z’ within it by threat of force, satisfying both offences.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 62Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
The provision of ’Plea Bargaining’ under chapter XXIA of CrPC are not applicable if the offence is committed against a child below the age of:
A12 years
14 years
C16 years
D18 years
Why B. Under Section 265A of the CrPC, plea bargaining is not applicable if the offence is committed against a child below the age of 14 years, as the law treats such offences as too serious to be resolved through negotiated settlement due to the vulnerability of the victim.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 63Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Under Section 82 and 83 of Indian Penal Code, an offence is punishable if it is done by a child:
Aof below seven years of age.
of above seven years of age but below twelve years having attained sufficient maturity and understanding.
Cof above seven years of age but below ten years having attained sufficient maturity and understanding.
Dof above seven years of age but below twelve years not having attained sufficient maturity and understanding.
Why B. Under Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code, a child below seven years of age is absolutely immune from criminal liability. Section 83 provides that a child of above seven years but below twelve years is not punishable if they have not attained sufficient maturity and understanding to judge the nature and consequences of their act; hence, liability arises only if such a child has attained sufficient maturity and understanding.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 64Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Name two essential conditions of Penal Liability.
AGuilty Body & Rightful Act
BGuilty Intent & Wrong Motive
Guilty Mind & Wrongful Act
DGuilty Motive & Wrongful Act
Why C. Under Section 10 of the BNS, penal liability requires both a guilty mind and a wrongful act, as the law mandates that criminal responsibility arises only when there is a concurrence of intent or knowledge with the prohibited conduct.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 65Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which Sections deal with the processes to compel appearance under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973?
Sections 61 to 90
BSections 154 to 173
CSections 211 to 219
DSections 274 to 282
Why A. Sections 61 to 90 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 prescribe the procedures for issuing processes such as summons, warrants, and other orders to compel the appearance of persons before a court.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 66Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
An offence for which, a police officer may arrest a person without warrant is known as
ANon-cognizable offence
Cognizable offence
CBailable offence
DNone of these
Why B. Under Section 32 of the BNSS, a cognizable offence is one where a police officer has the authority to arrest a person without a warrant, as the nature of such offences permits immediate action to prevent escape or further harm.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 67Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
In a summons trial case instituted on a complaint wherein the summons has been issued to the accused, the non-appearance or death of the complainant shall entail .............
ADischarge of the accused
Acquittal of the accused
CEither discharge or acquittal depending on the facts and circumstances of the case
DNone of these
Why B. Under Section 256 of the BNSS, if the complainant in a summons trial does not appear or dies, the court shall acquit the accused, as the prosecution cannot proceed without the complainant's presence to substantiate the allegations.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 68Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Suppose F.I.R. is not registered by the Station House Officer. What are the options that the complainant has?
AApproach Superintendent of Police
BApproach Magistrate by filing Private Complaint
CNone of these
Both (Approach Superintendent of Police) & (Approach Magistrate by filing Private Complaint)
Why D. Under Section 154 of the BNSS, if the Station House Officer refuses to register an F.I.R., the complainant may either approach the Superintendent of Police or file a private complaint before a Magistrate, as both are legally recognized remedies to ensure the registration of the complaint.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 69Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Any police officer making an investigation under Section 160 of CrPC cannot require the attendance of a male, at a place other than the place of his residence who is:
Aunder the age of 15 years and above the age of 60 years
Bunder the age of 18 years and above the age of 60 years
under the age of 15 years and above the age of 65 years
Dunder the age of 18 years and above the age of 65 years
Why C. Under Section 160 of the CrPC, a police officer cannot require the attendance of any male who is under the age of 15 years or above the age of 65 years at a place other than his residence, as the law protects minors and elderly persons from unnecessary travel during investigation.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 70Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code is ”SECULAR” in character was observed in which of the following case?
ALalita Kumari V. State of Uttar Pradesh
BArnesh Kumar’s Case
Mohd. Ahmed Khan V. Shah Bano Begum
DSelvy V. State of Karnataka
Why C. Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code provides for maintenance to wives, children, and parents regardless of religion, and this secular character was affirmed in Mohd. Ahmed Khan V. Shah Bano Begum.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 71Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Who has the power of summary trial of a case?
AChief Judicial Magistrate
BMetropolitan Magistrate
CAny Magistrate of first class specially empowered by the High Court
All of these
Why D. Under Section 260 of the CrPC, a Magistrate of the first class empowered under Section 260 may summarily try any case that is punishable with imprisonment not exceeding three months, and the power extends to all such cases regardless of the nature of the offence, as long as the punishment prescribed does not exceed the limit.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 72Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which Order of Civil Procedure Code deals with Temporary Injunction and interlocutory Injunction?
AOrder 38
Order 39
COrder 40
DOrder 41
Why B. Order 39 of the Civil Procedure Code deals with temporary and interlocutory injunctions, as it prescribes the conditions and procedure for granting such reliefs during the pendency of a suit to preserve the subject matter of the dispute.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 73Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
A is a tradesman in Ahmedabad, B carries on business in Delhi. B, by his agent Ahmedabad, buys goods of A and requests A to deliver them to the Western Roadway Transport Company. A delivers the goods accordingly in Ahmedabad. A may sue B for the price of the goods
AIn Ahmedabad only
BIn Delhi only
In either Ahmedabad or Delhi
DAnywhere in India
Why C. Under Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act, when a contract is made through an agent, the place of performance is deemed to be where the act is done by the agent. Since B’s agent accepted the goods and arranged delivery in Ahmedabad, the contract is deemed performed there, and A may sue in Ahmedabad or Delhi, as either is a proper place of jurisdiction.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 74Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following Section of Civil Procedure Code deals with the concept of Re Judicata?
ASection 10
Section 11
CSection 12
DSection 13
Why B. Section 11 of the Civil Procedure Code lays down the principle of res judicata, which prevents the same dispute between the same parties from being litigated again after a final decision has been rendered by a competent court.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 75Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Mr. X, Mr. Y and Mr. Z are jointly and severally liable for Rs. 10,000 under a decree obtained by Mr. A. Mr. Y obtains a decree for Rs. 10,000 against Mr. A singly 68 and applies for execution to the Court in which the joint-decree is being executed. Which of the following option correct for Mr. A?
Mr. A may treat his joint-decree as cross-decree under Order 21 Rule 18
BMr. A cannot treat his joint-decree as cross-decree under Order 21 Rule 18.
CMr. A cannot treat his joint-decree as cross-decree under Order 22 Rule 18.
DNone of these
Why A. Under Order 21 Rule 18 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a judgment debtor who has been held jointly and severally liable may treat a subsequent decree obtained against him singly by one of the co-decrees as a cross-decree, enabling him to set off the amount against the joint decree.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 76Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
A, B and C are coparceners of Joint Hindu Family. They jointly execute a mortgage in favour of Y. Y files a suit against all of them. Summons is served to C but not to A and B. None of them appears and an ex parte decree is passed against all. A and B applied to set aside the ex parte decree. The decree will be set aside against
AOnly C
BOnly A & B
A, B and C
DNone of these
Why C. Under Section 114 of the Civil Procedure Code, an ex parte decree against a party who was not properly served with summons is void ab initio as to that party, and the court has inherent power to set aside such a decree to prevent abuse of process and ensure justice.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 77Professional Ethics & Contempt
If someone lies before the court on affidavit, how can it be tackled by the Advocate/s?
Perjury Application can be filed.
BWithdraw from the case.
CFile application to support that.
DPay the fine for the same
Why A. Under Section 191 of the Indian Evidence Act, a person who intentionally gives false evidence in any stage of a judicial proceeding commits perjury, and an application for prosecution for perjury may be filed by any party affected by the falsehood.
Question 78Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Proclamation for person absconding shall be published as follows: (i) It shall be publicly read in some conspicuous place of the town or village in which such person ordinarily resides; (ii) It shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the house or homestead in which such person ordinarily resides or to some conspicuous place of such town or village; (iii) A copy thereof shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the Court-house; (iv) The Court may also, if it thinks fit, direct a copy of the proclamation to be published in a daily newspaper circulating in the place in which such person ordinarily resides.
AOnly ii, iii, iv are correct.
BOnly ii and iii are correct.
COnly i, iii, iv are correct.
All i, ii, iii, iv are correct.
Why D. Under Section 84 of the BNSS, a proclamation for a person absconding must be publicly read in a conspicuous place where the person ordinarily resides, affixed to their house or homestead or to a conspicuous place in the town or village, and also affixed to the court-house; additionally, the court has discretionary power to direct publication in a daily newspaper circulating in that area, making all four methods legally valid.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 79Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
AFirst appeal can be on question of fact or law or both.
BSecond appeal can be on substantial question of law only.
Second appeal can be on question of fact or law or both.
DFirst appeal may or may not be in the High Court, Second appeal has to be in the High Court.
Why C. Under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a second appeal lies only on substantial questions of law, and not on questions of fact alone; therefore, the statement that a second appeal can be on question of fact or law or both is incorrect.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 80Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
As per Order VI, Pleading shall mean?
APlaint
BWritten Statement
Both Plaint and Written Statement
DNone of these
Why C. As per Section 2 of the Civil Procedure Code, pleading means the Plaint or the Written Statement, as these are the only two documents that formally state the claims and defenses of the parties in a civil suit.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 81Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following Order deals with ”Death, Marriage and Insolvency of Parties”?
AOrder 20
BOrder 21
Order 22
DOrder 23
Why C. Order 22 of the Civil Procedure Code deals with the death, marriage and insolvency of parties, as it prescribes the procedure to be followed when a party to a suit dies, marries or becomes insolvent, including substitution of parties and continuation of proceedings.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 82Evidence (IEA / BSA)
The doctrine of ”Res Gestae” has been discussed in which Section of the Evidence Act?
ASection 5
Section 6
CSection 10
DSection 11
Why B. Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act embodies the doctrine of Res Gestae, which allows statements made by a person during or immediately after an event to be admissible as evidence because they form part of the same transaction.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 83Evidence (IEA / BSA)
When the liability of a person who is one of the parties to the suit depends upon the liability of a stranger to the suit, then an admission by the stranger in respect of his liability shall be an admission on the part of that person who is a party to the suit. It has been so provided under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
ASection 17
BSection 18
Section 19
DSection 21
Why C. Section 19 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides that when the liability of a party to a suit depends upon the liability of a stranger, an admission made by that stranger regarding his own liability operates as an admission against the party whose liability is dependent on it.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 84Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Judicial Evidence means
Evidence received by Courts in proof or disproof of facts
BEvidence received by Police Officer
CEvidence received by Home Department
DEvidence received by Tribunal.
Why A. Judicial Evidence, as defined under Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, means evidence received by Courts in proof or disproof of facts, distinguishing it from other forms of evidence not presented in a judicial proceeding.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 85Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Which of the following is not a ’document’ according to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
AAn inscription on a metal plate or stone
BA map or plan
CA caricature
None of these
Why D. Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 defines 'document' as any matter expressed or described upon any substance by means of letters, figures or marks, or by more than one of those means, intended to be used, or which may be used, for the purpose of recording that matter. None of the options provided meet this legal definition, making 'None of these' the correct answer.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 86Evidence (IEA / BSA)
”Presumptions as to Dowry Deaths” is given under which Section?
A113A
113B
C11
D114B
Why B. Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act creates a presumption of dowry death when it is shown that the deceased woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any relative of her husband in connection with any demand for dowry, shortly before her death.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 87Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Which of the following is not ’Secondary evidence’ as per Section 63 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
ACopies made from the original by mechanical processes which in themselves insure the accuracy of the copy, and copies compared with such copies.
BCopies made from or compared with the original.
COral accounts of the contents of a document given by some person who has himself seen it.
Copies not certified under Section 63.
Why D. Under Section 63 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, secondary evidence includes certified copies, copies made from the original by mechanical processes, and counterparts, but not uncertified copies, which lack the legal authenticity required to qualify as secondary evidence.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 88Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following provision of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 deals with the Institution of Suits?
ASection 22
BSection 24
Section 26
DSection 28
Why C. Section 26 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 lays down the rule that every suit shall be instituted in the court of the lowest grade competent to try it, establishing the principle of proper forum for initiating civil proceedings.
Question 89Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Defendant shall, within ....... days from the date of service of summon on him, present a Written Statement of his defence (ORDER VIII).
A15
30
C60
D45
Why B. Under Order VIII Rule 1 of the Civil Procedure Code, the defendant must file a Written Statement within 30 days from the date of service of summons, unless extended by the court for sufficient cause.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 90ADR incl. Arbitration
The Arbitral Tribunal shall not be bound by .......... in the determination of rules of procedure.
AThe Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
BThe Indian Evidence Act, 1872
CThe Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Both (The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908) and (The Indian Evidence Act, 1872)
Why D. Under Section 19 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the Arbitral Tribunal is not bound by the procedural formalities of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, or the rules of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and may determine its own procedure subject to the parties' agreement.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 91ADR incl. Arbitration
Which of the following Section deals with ”Arbitration Agreement” in Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
ASection 6
Section 7
CSection 8
DSection 9
Why B. Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 defines what constitutes an arbitration agreement, specifying that it must be in writing and embody the mutual intention of the parties to submit their disputes to arbitration.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 92ADR incl. Arbitration
Under what circumstances the arbitral proceedings can be terminated?
1 and 3
B1 and 2 85
C2 and 3
D1.2 and 3
Why A. Under Section 32 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, arbitral proceedings are terminated when the arbitral tribunal issues a final award, when the parties agree to terminate the proceedings, or when the tribunal finds that the continuation of the proceedings has become unnecessary or impossible. Only these circumstances — final award and mutual agreement — qualify as valid grounds for termination under the statute.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 93ADR incl. Arbitration
Under Section 29 of The Arbitration And Conciliation Act, 1996 arbitral proceedings with more than one arbitrator, any decision of the arbitral tribunal.
Ashall be made by all members
Bshall be made by 2/3 majority of its members
Cshall be made by the chief arbitrator
shall be made by majority of its members 86
Why D. Under Section 29 of the Arbitration And Conciliation Act, 1996, any decision of an arbitral tribunal with more than one arbitrator shall be made by a majority of its members.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 94Family Law
The provision for ’maintenance pendente lite’ in Hindu Marriage Act. 1955 is given in.
ASection 22
BSection 23
Section 24
DSection 25
Why C. Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for maintenance pendente lite, allowing either spouse to claim financial support during the pendency of matrimonial proceedings, based on the other spouse's income and the applicant's needs.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 95Family Law
A Muslim wife may sue for divorce under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 Section 2, if the husband has been insane for a period of.
A1 year
2 years
C5 years
D7 years
Why B. Under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939, a wife may seek divorce if her husband has been insane for a continuous period of two years, as this duration establishes a legally recognized ground for dissolution of marriage under the statute.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 96Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Muslim woman has option to be governed by the provisions of Sections 125 to 128 of Criminal Procedure Code 1973. Which section of The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 deals with it?
Section 5
BSection 6
CSection 7
DNone of these
Why A. Section 5 of The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 provides that a divorced Muslim woman shall have the right to claim maintenance under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, if she has not received maintenance under the Act.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 97Family Law
Which of the following is not a ground of void marriage under Section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act?
ABigamy
BDegrees of Prohibited Relationship
CSapinda Relationship
Child marriage
Why D. Child marriage is not a ground of void marriage under Section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act because Section 11 only declares marriages void if they violate Section 5(i), (ii), or (iii), and child marriage is addressed as a voidable marriage under Section 12, not void under Section 11.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 98Family Law
Sapinda Relationship means
A3rd generation (mother), 7th generation (father)
3rd generation (mother), 5th generation (father)
C3rd generation (mother), 4th generation (father)
D2nd generation (mother), 5th generation (father)
Why B. Under Section 3 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, sapinda relationship extends up to the fifth generation through the father and the third generation through the mother, meaning a person is sapinda to their father’s line up to the fifth generation and to their mother’s line up to the third generation.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 99Evidence (IEA / BSA)
A leading question may be asked in
AExamination-in-chief 91
BRe-examination
Cross examination
DNone of these
Why C. Under Section 143 of the Indian Evidence Act, leading questions may be asked during cross-examination without the court's permission, as this stage is designed to test the credibility of the witness and elicit truthful responses through direct and pointed inquiry.
Tap to read the exact provision
Question 100Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Extra Judicial Confession means
Confessions made either to Police or person other than Judges and Magistrates.
BConfessions made before Magistrates.
CConfessions made before Judges.
DNone of these
Why A. An extra-judicial confession is one made to any person other than a Judge or Magistrate, and under Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act, such confessions are inadmissible if they appear to have been induced, threatened, or promised by a person in authority.
The Bar Council of India typically declares the AIBE result about 30 to 40 days after the exam. Until then, this unofficial answer key lets you estimate your score immediately.
The passing cutoff is 45% (45/100) for General/OBC candidates and 40% (40/100) for SC/ST/PwD candidates.
No. AIBE has no negative marking, so every correct answer earns one mark while wrong or unanswered questions simply earn zero.
No. This is an unofficial answer key with detailed solutions, provided to help you estimate your score. Always verify against the official key published on allindiabarexamination.com.
Use the free score calculator. Enter the option you marked for each question, either as a quick answer sheet or one question at a time, and get your exact score, cutoff verdict, and subject breakdown instantly.
This is an unofficial answer key prepared for educational purposes and to help candidates estimate their score before the official result. Answers reflect our expert analysis and may differ from the final Bar Council of India key. Always verify against the official key at allindiabarexamination.com .
Answer key
