All 100 questions of AIBE-16 (2021) Set C with the correct answer, an original explanation, and the exact bare-act provision a tap away. No negative marking. The qualifying cutoff is 45 of 100 for General and OBC, 40 of 100 for SC, ST and PwD.
AIBE 16 (XXI) Set C Answer Key 2021 with Solutions
Answer key at a glance
Question 1Family Law
The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955_____ petition in which a decree of restitution of conjugal rights has been passed to apply to the court for a decree for divorce by showing that there has been no restitution of conjugal rights as between parties of marriage for a period of one year or upwards after passing of the decree.
ADoes not permit any party to that
BDoes not permit the party against whom the
Does permit any party to that
DDoes permit any person related to either party to that
Why C. Section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 permits any party to that petition to apply to the court for a decree of divorce if there has been no restitution of conjugal rights for one year or more after the decree was passed.
Question 2Family Law
The offences under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 are
ACognizable and bailable
BNon cognizable and non-bailable
Cognizable and non-bailable
DNon cognizable and bailable
Why C. Under Section 12 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, offences are classified as cognizable and non-bailable, meaning police may arrest without a warrant and bail cannot be granted as a matter of right, reflecting the seriousness with which the law treats child marriage.
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Question 3ADR incl. Arbitration
An arbitration proceeding is a:
AJudicial proceeding
Quasi-judicial proceeding
CAdministrative proceeding
DNone of the above
Why B. An arbitration proceeding is a quasi-judicial proceeding because it involves the application of legal principles by a neutral third party to resolve disputes, with powers to examine evidence, hear parties, and issue binding awards, even though it is not conducted in a formal court.
Question 4ADR incl. Arbitration
What is ad hoc arbitration?
AIt is a proceeding administered by the parties themselves, with rules created solely, for that specific case
BParties make their own arrangement with respect to all aspects of the arbitration, including the laws and rules
CThe seal of arbitration, the language, and the scope and issues to be resolved by means of arbitration
(a), (b) and (c)
Why D. Ad hoc arbitration is a form of arbitration where the parties themselves arrange the procedural framework without relying on a permanent arbitral institution, and the tribunal is constituted specifically for that dispute under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
Question 5Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following Sections of the Civil Procedure Code define the 'Mesne Profit'?
ASection 2(4)
BSection 2(14)
CSection 2(6)
Section 2(12)
Why D. Section 2(12) of the Civil Procedure Code defines 'Mesne Profits' as the profits which the person in wrongful possession of property actually received or could have received with ordinary diligence, together with interest on such profits.
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Question 6Evidence (IEA / BSA)
How many kinds of presumptions are there as classified by the Supreme Court?
APermissive presumptions or presumptions of facts
BCompelling presumptions or presumptions of law (rebuttable presumptions)
CIrrebuttable presumptions of law or conclusive presumptions.
All of them
Why D. The Indian Evidence Act recognises three kinds of presumptions: presumptions of fact, presumptions of law, and presumptions of guilt, all of which are classified by the Supreme Court as distinct legal categories under the Act.
Question 7Constitutional Law
What is the leading decision in the case of Menaka Gandhi Vs Union of India?
Right of hearing
BSeparation of powers
CDelegated legislation
DRule of evidence
Why A. The right of hearing is a fundamental aspect of natural justice, which is embedded in the constitutional guarantee of personal liberty under the Constitution of India. It ensures that no person can be deprived of their rights without a fair opportunity to be heard.
Question 8Professional Ethics & Contempt
Advocate's Act 1961 came into force on:
19th May, 1961
B19th April, 1961
C1st May, 1961
D19th January, 1961
Why A. The Advocate's Act, 1961 came into force on 19th May, 1961, as this is the date specified in the Act itself for its commencement, marking the day it replaced the earlier legal framework governing advocates in India.
Question 9Labour & Industrial Law
A Railway servant was killed in a bus accident during the course of employment. His family members may claim compensation under
AThe Motor Vehicle Act
BThe Employees Compensation Act, 1923
CBoth (a) and (b)
Either under (a) OR under (b)
Why D. Under Section 3 of the Employees Compensation Act, 1923, compensation is payable if the injury or death arises out of and in the course of employment, regardless of whether the accident occurred on railway premises or during a commute incidental to employment, so the claim may lie either under this Act or under any other applicable law.
Question 10Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
"Casting Couch" in Bollywood, the Indian film industry, is an example of-
Asexual assault
sexual harassment
Cboth (a) and (b)
DNone of the above
Why B. Under Section 2 of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, sexual harassment includes any unwelcome act or behavior of a sexual nature, such as demands for sexual favors, and the 'casting couch' practice constitutes such conduct in a work-related context.
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Question 11Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
According to section 2 of motor vehicles Act, 1988 the term motor cab means any motor vehicle constructed or adapted to carry not more than
A5 passengers or including the driver
B6 passengers or including the driver
C5 passengers or excluding the driver
6 passengers or excluding the driver
Why D. Under Section 2 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, a motor cab is defined as a motor vehicle constructed or adapted to carry not more than six passengers, excluding the driver, which is the statutory limit for such vehicles.
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Question 12Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
The National Commission of Consumer Protection is composed of-
A7 members;
5 members;
C8 members;
D6 members;
Why B. Under Section 16 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the National Commission consists of a President and not less than four other members, making a minimum of five members in total.
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Question 13Family Law
Which of the following sections of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 deals with "amount of maintenance"?
ASection 21
BSection 22
Section 23
DSection 24
Why C. Section 23 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 specifies the factors to be considered when determining the amount of maintenance, including the position and status of the parties, the reasonable needs of the claimant, and the value of the respondent's property and income.
Question 14Environmental Law
In which of the following case the Supreme Court First of all made an attempt to look into the question regarding the extension of the right to life to the right to Health and other Hygienic conditions —
The Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Vs State of Uttar Pradesh.
BM.C Mehta Vs Union of India
CV. Lakshmipathy Vs State of Karnataka
DF.K. Hussain Vs Union of India.
Why A. The Supreme Court, in this case, interpreted Article 21 of the Constitution to include the right to a healthy environment and hygienic conditions as an essential part of the right to life, thereby expanding its scope beyond mere physical survival.
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Question 15Environmental Law
Basel Convention is associated with one of the following —
AInternational Trade in Endangered species of wild Fauna & flora
BClimate change
CProtection of Ozone layer
The control of transboundary movement of Hazardous waste and their disposal.
Why D. The Basel Convention governs the transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and their disposal, establishing a legal framework to prevent the transfer of such wastes from developed to developing countries without proper consent and environmental safeguards.
Question 16Cyber Law
Cyber crime is in nature
ATangible
Intangible w
COf mental Violence
DNone of the above
Why B. Cyber crime involves unlawful acts committed through digital means, and its core elements often pertain to intangible property such as data, digital assets, or electronic information, which are protected under the Information Technology Act, 2000 as non-physical but legally recognized interests.
Question 17Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 "Foreign Court" means
AA court situated outside India
A court situated outside India and not established under the authority of Government of India
CA court situated in India, applying foreign law
DAll of the above
Why B. Under Section 2(5) of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, a 'Foreign Court' is defined as a court situated outside India and not established under the authority of the Government of India, which distinguishes it from courts within India or those created by Indian authority abroad.
Question 18Public Interest Litigation
Misuse of mechanism of PILs means-
Afiling PILs for protection of private interest
Bfiling PILs for oblique motive
Cfiling PILs only for publicity
All of the above
Why D. The Constitution permits Public Interest Litigation as a tool to enforce fundamental rights and ensure justice for the disadvantaged, but its misuse undermines judicial efficiency and dilutes the intent of public interest enforcement, making all listed forms of abuse legally impermissible under constitutional principles.
Question 19Administrative Law
What is meant by procedural ultra- vires?
AIt is the non-observance of the procedural norms by the rule-making authority
BIt may make the rule ultra vires due to non-observance of rule-making authority and hence become void
CIt means the lacuna in the procedure of law
(a) and (b)
Why D. Procedural ultra vires occurs when an authority acts beyond the procedures prescribed by law, even if the subject matter is within its powers; it invalidates an action not because the power is absent, but because the correct process was not followed.
Question 20Constitutional Law
The ground of “error of law apparent on the face of the record" is connected with which of the writ?
AQuo-warranto
BMandamus
CHabeas Corpus
Certiorari
Why D. Certiorari is the writ issued under Article 226 to correct errors of law that are apparent on the face of the record, enabling a higher court to quash orders passed by subordinate courts or tribunals that exceed their jurisdiction or violate principles of natural justice.
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Question 21Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Under Civil Procedure Code, find the incorrect match:
ASection 5 Revenue Court
BSection 7 Provincial Small Causes Court
Section 9 Pecuniary Jurisdiction of Courts
DSection 8 Presidency Small Cause Courts
Why C. Section 9 of the Civil Procedure Code establishes that courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature unless expressly barred, and pecuniary jurisdiction is a fundamental aspect of this general jurisdiction, determining which court is competent to hear a suit based on its monetary value.
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Question 22Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
What is the Period of Limitation, for expeditious disposal of Suit under Specific Relief Act, 1963:
A6 month
B10 month
12 month
D18 month
Why C. The law mandates that a suit for expeditious disposal under the Specific Relief Act, 1963 must be concluded within twelve months from the date of filing, to ensure timely justice and prevent unnecessary delays in enforcement of contractual or proprietary rights.
Question 23Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment
Not exceeding seven years
BExceeding seven years
CFor life
DNone of the above
Why A. Under Section 29 of the BNSS, a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment not exceeding seven years, as this is the maximum limit prescribed by law for such a court.
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Question 24Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Harbouring an offender who has escaped from custody, or whose apprehension has been ordered, if the offence be capital is dealt under
ASection 215 of IPC
Section 216 of IPC
CSection 217 of IPC
DSection 218 of IPC
Why B. Section 216 of the Indian Penal Code punishes anyone who harbours an offender who has escaped from custody or whose apprehension has been ordered, when the offence committed is punishable with death or imprisonment for life.
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Question 25Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
The maxim 'actus notfacitreum nisi mens sit rea' means
There can be no crime without a guilty mind
BCrime has to be coupled with guilty mind
CCrime is the result of guilty mind
DIn crime intention is relevant, motive is irrelevant
Why A. The principle holds that a criminal act requires both a guilty act and a guilty mind; without intent or knowledge of wrongdoing, an act alone does not constitute a crime under the BNS.
Question 26Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Law laid down under Section - 73 of Indian Contract Act 1872 is related to which of the following cases:
AHothester Vs De-la-tur
BRabinson Vs Devison
Hedley Vs Baxendal
DDikinson Vs Dads
Why C. Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act deals with compensation for loss or damage caused by a breach of contract, and the principle established in Hedley Vs Baxendal recognizes liability for negligent misstatement leading to financial loss, which falls within the scope of foreseeable damages under this section.
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Question 27Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Recovery of Specific Immovable Property may be obtained by C.P.C within what period-
AWithin 7 months
Within 6 months
CWithin 8 months
DWithin 10 months
Why B. Under Section 65 of the Civil Procedure Code, a suit for recovery of specific immovable property must be instituted within six months from the date of the order or decree directing such recovery, as this is the prescribed limitation period for enforcement of such orders.
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Question 28Land Acquisition Act
Who appoints the Commissioner for rehabilitation and resettlement under the LARR Act?
ALARR Authority
BMinister of Environment and Forests
CCentral Government
State Government
Why D. The Commissioner for rehabilitation and resettlement is appointed by the State Government, as the LARR Act vests the authority for implementation and administration of rehabilitation and resettlement measures at the state level, ensuring localized oversight and accountability in land acquisition processes.
Question 29Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
The Bond under section 109 Cr.P.C as security for good behaviour from suspected person can be executed for a period not exceeding:
ASix months
BTwo years
One year
DThree months
Why C. Under Section 109 of the CrPC, a bond for good behaviour from a suspected person may be executed for a period not exceeding one year, as this is the maximum duration prescribed by law for such a bond.
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Question 30Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
The maximum limit of Rs. 500 that could be paid to the wife as maintenance under Section 125 of the Cr.P.C 1973 was removed in:
A1973
B1989
2001
D2007
Why C. Section 125 of the Cr.P.C. 1973 originally capped maintenance at Rs. 500 per month, and this limit was removed by an amendment in 2001 to ensure adequate support for wives, children, and parents based on actual need and the husband's means.
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Question 31Intellectual Property Law
The term 'WIPO" stands for:
AWorld Investment policy organization
World intellectual property organization
CWildlife Investigation and Policing organization
DWorld institute for Prevention of organized crime
Why B. WIPO stands for the World Intellectual Property Organization, established under the WIPO Convention as the global forum for intellectual property services, policy, information, and cooperation among member states.
Question 32Law related to Taxation
Health and education cess is applicable to —
All assesses
BAll assesses except company
CIndividual / HUF
DCompany only
Why A. Health and education cess is applicable to all assesses who are liable to pay income tax under the Income Tax Act, 1961, as it is a surcharge levied on the total tax liability, regardless of the category or status of the assessee.
Question 33Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Contractual Liability arises, where:
AThere is offer and acceptance only.
There is intention to create legal relation.
CThere is loss to one party
DThe loss of one party is the gain of other party.
Why B. Contractual liability arises where there is an intention to create legal relations, as required under Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, which mandates that agreements must be made with the intention to create legal obligations to be enforceable as contracts.
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Question 34Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Provisions of Section 10 of CPC are:
Directory
BMandatory
CNone- Mandatory
DDiscretionary
Why A. Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code mandates that a court shall not proceed with a suit if the matter in issue is directly and substantially in dispute in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, pending in another court in India; this is a directory provision meant to prevent multiplicity of proceedings, not an absolute bar.
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Question 35Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Constructive res-judicata is contained in which of the following?
AExplanation III to Section 11
Explanation IV to Section 11
CExplanation VI to Section 11
DExplanation VIII to Section 11
Why B. Constructive res-judicata is contained in Explanation IV to Section 11, which bars a party from raising in a subsequent suit any ground that could and should have been raised in a former suit between the same parties.
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Question 36Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
The famous pronouncement of Delhi High Court regarding constitutional validity of Section 377 Indian Penal Code reversed by Supreme Court in:
ANALSA Vs Union of India
BNaz Foundation Vs Government of NCT of Delhi
CShabnam Hasmi Vs Union of India
Suresh Kaushal Vs Naz Foundation
Why D. The Delhi High Court's decision decriminalizing consensual same-sex relations under Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code was reversed by the Supreme Court in Suresh Kaushal Vs Naz Foundation, which held that Section 377 was not unconstitutional as it applied to unnatural offenses regardless of consent.
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Question 37ADR incl. Arbitration
Reference to the Arbitration is provided in which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
ASection 7
Section 8
CSection 9
DSection 10
Why B. Section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 mandates that when a party to an arbitration agreement brings a suit in court, the court must refer the parties to arbitration if the subject matter of the suit falls within the scope of the arbitration agreement.
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Question 38Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Under the head subsequent conduct, which of the following type of conduct would be material?
AChange of life
BEvasion of justice
CFear, trembling
All of them
Why D. Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act makes all subsequent conduct—whether of the accused, the victim, or any other person—material if it affects or is affected by the fact in issue or a relevant fact, including conduct that suggests guilt, innocence, or knowledge.
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Question 39Constitutional Law
Freedom of Residence under Article 19 of that Indian Constitution is available in which of the following clauses?
Clause (1) (E)
BClause (1) (D)
CClause (1) (B)
DClause (1) (C)
Why A. Freedom of residence is guaranteed under Clause (1)(e) of Article 19 of the Constitution of India, which protects the right of all citizens to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
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Question 40Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Under which section of the Evidence Act, admissions are defined?
17
B16
C15
D18
Why A. Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act defines admissions as statements, oral or documentary, made by a party to the proceedings or by someone whose position is such that their statement can be attributed to them, and which are relevant under the Act.
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Question 41Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has held that the investigating officer should be allowed to refer to the records of investigation
State of Karnataka Vs Yarappa Reddi
BMohammed Khalid Vs State of West Bengal
CBaburam Vs State of U.P.
DState of Rajasthan Vs Om prakash
Why A. Under Section 173 of the CrPC, the investigating officer is permitted to refer to the records of investigation while giving evidence, as the report is not merely a formal document but a living record essential for fair presentation of the case.
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Question 42Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
If a party who obtained an order for leave to amend pleading does not amend the same within how many days, he shall not be permitted to do that without the leave of the Court
AFifteen days
Fourteen days
CTwenty days
DThirty days
Why B. Under Section 153A of the Code of Civil Procedure, a party who obtains leave to amend a pleading must do so within fourteen days; failure to amend within this period bars further amendment without fresh leave of the Court.
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Question 43Professional Ethics & Contempt
Punishment of advocates for misconduct has been given under section of the Advocate's Act -1961
A30
B32
35
DNone
Why C. Section 35 of the Advocates Act, 1961 empowers the State Bar Council to punish advocates for professional or other misconduct, including by issuing warnings, suspending practice, or removing names from the roll.
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Question 44Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Under which Section of IPC, Professional Negligence is often invoked against medical professionals in cases alleging professional negligence?
A303A
304A
C302
D305
Why B. Section 304A of the Indian Penal Code applies to causing death by a rash or negligent act, and is the provision commonly invoked in cases of professional negligence by medical practitioners where death results from want of reasonable care or skill.
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Question 45Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
A offers a bribe to B, a public servant, as a reward for showing A some favour in the exercise of B's official functions. B accepts the bribe
AA has abetted the offence define in Section 160, IPC
A has abetted the offence define in Section 161, IPC
CA has abetted the offence define in Section 162, IPC
DA has abetted the offence define in Section 163, IPC
Why B. A has abetted the offence defined in Section 161, IPC, because offering a bribe to a public servant with the intent that the servant shall unlawfully exercise his official functions constitutes abetment under Section 107, IPC, even though the bribe-taker is the one who commits the primary offence under Section 161.
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Question 46Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
When Perpetual Injunction may be granted-
AWhere the defendant is trustee of the Property for the plaintiff.
BWhere there is no standard for ascertaining the actual damage.
CCompensation in money would not afford adequate relief.
All of the above.
Why D. Under Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act, a perpetual injunction may be granted when the defendant invades or threatens to invade the plaintiff's right to any property, and the injunction is necessary to prevent a multiplicity of proceedings or to secure complete relief, which includes all the listed scenarios in the options.
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Question 47Professional Ethics & Contempt
An advocate is under an obligation to uphold the rule of law and ensure that the pubic justice system is enabled to function at its full potential. Any violation of the principle of professional ethic by an advocate is unfortunate and unacceptable. Ignoring even a minor violation/misconduct militates against the fundamental foundation of the public justice system. It was said in-
AHikmant ali Khan Vs Ishwar Prasad Arya, 1997 3 SCC 131
O.P. Sharma Vs High Court of Punjab & Haryana, (2011) 6 SCC 86
CL.D. Jaikwal Vs State of Uttar Pradesh, (1984) 3 SCC 405
DShamsher Singh Bedi Vs High Court of Punjab & Haryana, (1996) 7 SCC 99.
Why B. An advocate must uphold the integrity of the legal system by adhering to professional ethics, and any misconduct, however minor, undermines public confidence in justice; this principle was affirmed in O.P. Sharma Vs High Court of Punjab & Haryana.
Question 48Company Law
Section 8 of the companies act, 2013 contains provision relating to
AIncorporation of company
Formation of companies with charitable objects, etc.
CEffect of registration
DEffect of memorandum and articles.
Why B. Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 permits the formation of companies with charitable objects, such as promoting commerce, art, science, religion, charity, or any other useful object, provided the profits or other income are applied solely for promoting those objects and no dividend is paid to members.
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Question 49Company Law
The verification of the registered office shall be furnished to the registrar within a period of incorporation
30 days
B60 days
C90 days
D120 days
Why A. Under Section 12(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, a company must furnish verification of its registered office to the registrar within thirty days of incorporation, as this is a mandatory statutory deadline for compliance with the requirement of maintaining a registered office.
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Question 50Cyber Law
Cyber law deals with
AAll activities concerning the internet
BIPR
CE-commerce
All of the above
Why D. Cyber law under the Information Technology Act, 2000 governs digital transactions, electronic records, and online offenses, encompassing all aspects of legal issues arising from the use of information technology, including data protection, cybercrime, and electronic authentication.
Question 51Labour & Industrial Law
The payment of compensation to railway employees by the railway administration for injury by accident is governed by:
The Employees Compensation Act, 1923
BThe payment of Wages Act, 1936
CRights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016
DThe Workmen Compensation Act, 1986
Why A. The Employees Compensation Act, 1923, is the exclusive statute that governs the payment of compensation to employees for injuries arising out of and in the course of employment, including railway employees, irrespective of fault, provided the injury is caused by an accident connected to their work.
Question 52Labour & Industrial Law
The minimum amount of compensation payable under Employees Compensation Act, 1923 in case of total permanent disablement of a railway servant due to accident is ____.
ARs 80,000/-
BRs 90,000/-
Rs 1,40,000/-
DRs 1,20,000/-
Why C. Under Section 4 of the Employees Compensation Act, 1923, the minimum compensation for total permanent disablement is Rs 1,40,000/-, regardless of the worker's monthly wages, to ensure a baseline level of financial protection for the injured employee.
Question 53Intellectual Property Law
A company wishes to ensure that no one else can use their logo.
ACopy rights
Trade mark
CPatent
DIndustrial designs
Why B. A trademark is a legal identifier that distinguishes the goods or services of one business from others, and under the Trade Marks Act, 1999, a company can register its logo as a trademark to exclusively prevent others from using it.
Question 54ADR incl. Arbitration
The Section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, dealing with the time of commencement of arbitral proceeding is
ASection 20
Section 21
CSection 22
DNone of the above
Why B. Section 21 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, provides that arbitral proceedings commence on the date the request for the dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent, establishing the legal starting point for the arbitration process.
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Question 55Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Under Criminal procedure Code 1973, who shall record the information of rape being given by a rape victim?
AOfficer in-charge of the police station
BDeputy Superintendent of police
COfficer not below the rank of Sub Inspector
Woman police officer or any Woman officer
Why D. Under Section 154A of the Criminal Procedure Code, the information relating to rape must be recorded by a woman police officer or any woman officer to ensure the victim's dignity and comfort during the disclosure of such a sensitive matter.
Question 56Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Under the provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973,
ASummons can be oral
BSummons cannot be served on corporate entities
Summons are either for appearance or for producing a document/thing
DSummons can be served to servants in case the person on whose name summons are made cannot be found
Why C. Under Section 61 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, a summons must clearly state whether it requires the person to appear in person or to produce a document or thing, and it cannot combine both obligations without explicit specification.
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Question 57Constitutional Law
Every person who is a member or a defence service or hold a any civil post under the Union, holds office during the pleasure of the
APrime Minister
President
CCouncil of Minister
DBoth (A) and (B)
Why B. Under Article 310 of the Constitution of India, every person who is a member of a defence service or holds a civil post under the Union holds office during the pleasure of the President, meaning their appointment and continuation are subject to the President's discretion.
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Question 58Family Law
Which of the following statement/ statements is/are false for the purpose of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955? I. It is assumed that a person who is not Muslim, Santhal, Christian, Jew or Parsi by religion is Hindu II. A person who belongs to Lingayat sub sect is assumed to be Hindu III. A person converted who converted to another religion needs to follow local ritual/ csustom for converting back to Hinduism
AI only
BI and II
III only
DI and III
Why C. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a person who has converted to another religion ceases to be Hindu and cannot be presumed to have reverted simply by birth or belief; reversion requires a formal act of re-conversion recognized by Hindu custom, not merely a local ritual. Statement III is false because no specific ritual is mandated by law for re-conversion — the law recognizes reversion by genuine intent and conduct, not prescribed ceremonies. Statements I and II reflect established presumptions under the Act.
Question 59Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Provision for settlement of dispute outside court has been provided under Section ____ of Civil Procedure Code.
A91
89
C51
D151
Why B. Section 89 of the Civil Procedure Code provides for the settlement of disputes outside court through arbitration, conciliation, mediation, or judicial settlement, empowering the court to refer parties to alternative dispute resolution mechanisms.
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Question 60Evidence (IEA / BSA)
The Indian Evidence Act came into force on
A6th October, 1860
B1st March, 1974
C15th March, 1872
1st September, 1872
Why D. The Indian Evidence Act came into force on 1st September, 1872, as it was enacted to standardize the rules of evidence across civil and criminal proceedings in India, and this date marks its official commencement under the legislative authority of the time.
Question 61Constitutional Law
According to the provisions of Article 315 of the Indian Constitution: I. There shall be a public service commission for the Union and a Public Service commission for each state. II. The public service commission for the Union, if requested to do by the governor of a state may, with the approval of the president, agree to serve all or any of the needs of the state. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
AOnly I
BOnly II
I and II
DNone of them
Why C. Article 315 of the Constitution of India mandates the establishment of a Public Service Commission for the Union and for each state, and authorizes the Union Public Service Commission to assist a state commission upon request by the Governor, with the President's approval.
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Question 62Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Any private person may arrest any person who:
ACommits non-bailable offence in his presence
BCommits non- bailable offence and cognizable offence in his presence
CCommits compoundable offence in his presence
Commits offence in his presence or is a proclaimed offender
Why D. Under Section 35 of the BNSS, a private person may arrest any person who commits an offence in his presence or is a proclaimed offender, as these are the only two circumstances where the law permits such arrest without a warrant.
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Question 63Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
How long a warrant of arrest shall remain in force?
A6 years
B10 years
C12 years
Until executed or cancelled
Why D. Under Section 85 of the BNSS, a warrant of arrest remains in force until executed or cancelled, as it is designed to retain legal effect until its purpose is fulfilled or formally withdrawn by the issuing authority.
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Question 64Law related to Taxation
Rate of additional Depreciation will be _____ under section 32- Indian Income Tax Act
A10%
20 %
C15 %
D30 %
Why B. Under Section 32 of the Indian Income Tax Act, the rate of additional depreciation is 20% for new plant and machinery installed by certain eligible taxpayers in specified areas or for specified purposes, as prescribed by the Act.
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Question 65Law related to Taxation
Amount of deduction under section 24 of The Income Tax Act from annual value is —
A% of Annual Value
B1/3 of Annual Value
3/10 of Annual Value
D17/10 of Annual Value
Why C. Under Section 24 of the Income Tax Act, the deduction from annual value for a let-out property is fixed at 3/10 of the annual value, representing the statutory allowance for repairs and maintenance, irrespective of actual expenses incurred.
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Question 66Constitutional Law
The test of reasonableness is not wholly _____test and its contours are Fairley indicated by constitution.
Subjective
BObjective
CDescriptive
DSummative
Why A. The test of reasonableness under the Constitution is subjective because it depends on the judicial evaluation of facts, circumstances, and the purpose behind a law, rather than a rigid or objective standard.
Question 67Constitutional Law
The power to enact a law relating to the citizenship of India is left to _____ under the provisions of Article 11 of the Indian Constitution.
APresident
BCouncil of ministers
CHouse of people
Parliament
Why D. Under Article 11 of the Constitution of India, Parliament is vested with the exclusive power to regulate the right of citizenship by law, including acquisition and termination, making it the sole authority to enact citizenship legislation.
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Question 68Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Promissory estoppel against Government agencies is decided in:
ATweedle Vs Atkinson
BDutton Vs Poole
Pournami all Mills Vs State of Kerala
DKedar Nath Vs Gauri Mohamad
Why C. The case establishes that the government cannot go back on a clear and unambiguous promise made to a citizen, if that citizen has acted in reliance on the promise to their detriment, even in the absence of a formal contract, as it violates the principle of fairness under the Constitution.
Question 69Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Frustration of contract is provided by which section of the India contract Act?
ASec. 73
BSec. 70
CSec. 2(d)
Sec. 56
Why D. Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act provides that a contract becomes void when its performance becomes impossible or unlawful due to an unforeseen event beyond the control of the parties, which is the legal principle of frustration of contract.
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Question 70Labour & Industrial Law
Schedule II of the Employees Compensation Act 1923 deals with
AAge factor for calculating the amount of compensation
List of persons who are included in the definition of 'Employee'
CList of occupational diseases
DList of injuries Deemed to Result in Permanent Total
Why B. Schedule II of the Employees Compensation Act, 1923 contains the list of persons who are included in the definition of 'Employee', as this schedule explicitly enumerates the categories of workers covered under the Act for the purpose of claiming compensation.
Question 71Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Admission can be broadly categorised into:
AJudicial
BExtra-judicial
CEither A and B
Both A and B
Why D. An admission under the Indian Evidence Act is a statement that suggests an inference as to any fact in issue or relevant fact, and it can arise either from a party's own conduct or from a person whose relationship with the party makes their statement legally significant.
Question 72Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Section 66, Indian Evidence Act lays down:
AA notice must be given before secondary evidence can be received under section 65(a), Indian Evidence Act
BNotice to produce a document must be in writing
COrder XI, Rules 15, of Civil Procedure Code, prescribes the kind of notice to produce a document
All of them
Why D. Section 66 of the Indian Evidence Act requires that when a document is referred to in a pleading or evidence, the original must be produced unless its absence is satisfactorily explained; this applies to all types of documents, whether public or private, and no exception is made for any category — hence all of them must comply.
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Question 73Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Maxim "Res Ipsa Loquitur" means
The thing speaks for itself
BWhere there is right there is remedy
CWhere there is remedy there is right
DWhere there is no fault there is no remedy
Why A. The thing speaks for itself refers to a legal principle where the nature of an accident or injury strongly suggests negligence, even without direct evidence, because it would not normally occur without someone's fault.
Question 74Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
The Committee which led to the passing of the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 was headed by
AJustice Dalveer Bhandari
BJustice Altamas Kabir
Justice J.S. Verma
DJustice A.S. Anand
Why C. Justice J.S. Verma chaired the committee formed to recommend amendments to criminal law following widespread public demand for stronger legal protections against sexual violence, and its recommendations directly shaped the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013.
Question 75Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Under the scheme of Criminal Procedure Code, non-cognizable offences are:
APublic wrongs
Private wrongs
CBoth public and private wrongs
DNone of the above
Why B. Under Section 2(c) of the CrPC, non-cognizable offences are those in which a police officer cannot arrest without a warrant, and they are classified as private wrongs because they primarily affect individuals rather than public order, requiring a complaint to initiate proceedings.
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Question 76Constitutional Law
A discrimination against a man or a woman, only on grounds of _____ would be violative of Article 15(1)
Sex
BRemuneration
CPlace of birth
DReligion
Why A. Article 15(1) prohibits the State from discriminating against any citizen on grounds only of sex, among other categories, making discrimination solely on the basis of sex unconstitutional.
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Question 77Constitutional Law
The "Objective Resolution" adopted by the constituent assembly on January 22,1947 was drafted by
Jawaharlal Nehru
BDr. B.R. Ambedkar
CDr. Rajendra Prashad
DB.N. Rao
Why A. The Objective Resolution was drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru, as he presented it to the Constituent Assembly and it formed the foundational philosophy of the Constitution, embodying the ideals of sovereignty, democracy, and justice that later shaped its Preamble.
Question 78Constitutional Law
Right to the property was eliminated from the list of Fundamental Rights during the tenure of
AIndira Gandhi
BCharan Singh
CRajiv Gandhi
Morarji Desai
Why D. The right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the Forty-fourth Amendment to the Constitution of India, enacted during the tenure of Prime Minister Morarji Desai, under Section 31.
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Question 79Evidence (IEA / BSA)
When the accused states, "I will produce the share which I gave received in such and such robbery" which of the following are not admissible with regard to Section 25, Indian Evidence Act? I. An admission that there was a robbery II. An admission that the accused took part in it III. An admission that he got part of the property IV. A statement as to where the property is
I, II and III
BIII and IV
CII, III and IV
DAll of them
Why A. Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act excludes any confession made to a police officer as inadmissible; statements I, II, and III are admissions of guilt that form part of a confession, and thus are not admissible, while a statement about the location of property is a factual assertion not amounting to a confession and may be admissible.
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Question 80Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
The rule of Strict Liability is based on the decision in
ADonoghue Vs Stevenson
BHomes Vs Ashford
Rylands Vs Fletcher
DNone of the above
Why C. The rule of Strict Liability holds a person liable for harm caused by a dangerous thing brought onto their land and escaping, even without negligence or intent, as established in the case of Rylands v Fletcher.
Question 81Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
The Rule of Last opportunity was Laid down in
Davies Vs Manh
BState of A.P. Vs Ranganna
CNugent Vs Smith.
DKalawati Vs state of HP
Why A. The Rule of Last Opportunity holds that when two parties are involved in an incident and only one could have avoided the consequence by exercising reasonable care, the law attributes liability to that party. This principle was established in Davies Vs Manh.
Question 82Family Law
In which of the following cases was it held that "the rights conferred under section 25 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 supersedes any contract to the contrary. The fact that the date of decree makes no difference"?
ASurenderabal Vs Suppiah
BMukesh teli Vs Bharti Teli
Sesi Ammal Vs Thaiyu Ammal
DLaxmi Vs Krishna
Why C. The case of Sesi Ammal Vs Thaiyu Ammal established that under Section 25 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, the statutory right to maintenance overrides any prior agreement or contract to the contrary, regardless of when the decree was passed.
Question 83Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
A plaint has to be presented to the Court under Order IV, Rule 1 in
ASingle copy
Duplicate
CTriplicate
DNo fixed rule
Why B. Under Order IV, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a plaint must be presented in duplicate so that one copy is retained by the court and the other is served on the defendant, ensuring proper notice and procedural fairness.
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Question 84Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Omission to give notice under Order XXI. Rule 22 will
Render the execution null and void
BRender the execution irregular
CRender the execution voidable
DNot affect the execution
Why A. Omission to give notice under Order XXI Rule 22 renders the execution null and void because the rule mandates notice as a mandatory procedural precondition to enforce a decree, and failure to comply deprives the judgment-debtor of the opportunity to show cause, violating the principles of natural justice.
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Question 85Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Where a decree is passed against the Union of India or State for the Act done in the official capacity of the person concerned, under section 82 CPC, execution, shall not be issued on any such decree unless the decree remains unsatisfied for a period of
3 months from the date of decree
B6 months from the date of the decree
C1 year from the date of the decree
D2 years from the date of decree
Why A. Under Section 82 of the Civil Procedure Code, execution of a decree against the Union of India or a State for acts done in official capacity shall not be issued until the decree has remained unsatisfied for a period of three months from the date of the decree.
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Question 86Family Law
On which of the following dates did Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 come into operation?
18th May, 1955
B17th June, 1955
C22nd May, 1955
D18td June, 1955
Why A. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 came into operation on 18th May, 1955, as this is the date specified in the Act itself for its commencement, making it the legally effective date when the provisions of the statute became enforceable across India.
Question 87Family Law
Which of the following properties will section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, govern? I. Tarwad II. Tavazhi III. Kutumba IV. Kavaru V. Illom
AI, III, and V
BII, IV and V
I and II
DAll of the above
Why C. Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, governs the disposition of property by a Hindu through a will, and applies only to property that is capable of being disposed of by testamentary succession under Hindu law. The properties listed — Tarwad, Tavazhi, Kutumba, Kavaru, and Illom — are all forms of joint family property under customary Mappila, Nair, or other matrilineal systems, which are not subject to testamentary disposition under this section because they are governed by customary law and not by the individual ownership recognized under the Act.
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Question 88Professional Ethics & Contempt
The maximum limit of the members of the state bar council-
A15
B20
25
DNone.
Why C. Under Section 16 of the Advocates Act, 1961, the maximum number of members in a State Bar Council is fixed at 25, elected from among the advocates enrolled on the state roll, with additional ex-officio members not counted toward this limit.
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Question 89Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Specific Relief Act 1963 contains-
A6 chapters and 40 Sections
B7 chapters and 42 Sections
C8 chapters and 43 Sections
8 chapters and 44 Sections
Why D. The Specific Relief Act, 1963 is structured into 8 chapters that systematically outline the remedies available for enforcing civil rights, and these chapters are divided into 44 sections that detail the conditions, procedures, and limitations for each remedy.
Question 90Public Interest Litigation
The phrase "file a PIL, ostensibly in public interest but, in fact, to serve personal or private interests" means -
Afiling PIL for protection of only public interest
Bfiling PIL for protection of both public and private interest
Cfiling PIL for protection of only private interest v
filing PIL alleging it to be in public interest but actually seeking protection of private interest
Why D. Filing a PIL under Article 32, ostensibly in public interest but actually to serve private interests, violates the foundational principle that PILs must be genuine assertions of public interest and not misused as a tool for personal gain, as Article 32 is meant to enforce fundamental rights for the public, not private advantage.
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Question 91Public Interest Litigation
Filing of frivolous PILs results in-
Aincreasing backlog of cases
Bwastage of resources
Clesser availability of time for hearing other genuine cases
All of the above
Why D. Filing of frivolous PILs undermines the public interest litigation mechanism meant for genuine social justice, and the Constitution empowers the courts to impose costs or dismiss such petitions to prevent abuse of process and preserve judicial resources for legitimate causes.
Question 92Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Z, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill X. Is Z guilty of an offence. Has X the same right of private defence which he would have if Z were sane?
Z has not committed any offence as per section 98 of IPC and same right of private defence to X if Z is mad
BAs per Section 98 of IPC, X has committed an offence and no right of private defence to X
CZ has committed an offence for not using his mind
DNone above
Why A. Under Section 98 of the IPC, a person who is insane and attempts to commit an offence still triggers the right of private defence in the victim, and the victim has the same right to defend themselves as if the attacker were sane; the insane person does not commit an offence because they lack the requisite mens rea, but the right of private defence remains intact.
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Question 93Constitutional Law
Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases is mentioned in which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution?
AArticle 21
BArticle 21A
Article 22
DArticle 22A
Why C. Article 22 of the Constitution of India provides protection against arrest and detention in certain cases, including the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest, the right to consult a legal practitioner, and the right to be produced before a magistrate within twenty-four hours.
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Question 94Constitutional Law
Article 300A of Indian Constitution i.e. Right to property has been inserted in the Constitution by _______
44th Amendment Act
B42nd Amendment Act
C40th Amendment Act
D51st Amendment Act
Why A. Article 300A was inserted into the Constitution by the 44th Amendment Act, which reclassified the right to property from a fundamental right to a legal right, while still providing constitutional protection against arbitrary deprivation of property.
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Question 95Family Law
Which of the following sections of the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 have been repealed/ amended by section 6 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939?
ASection 4
Section 5
CSection 6
DSection 7
Why B. Section 5 of the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937, which deals with the inheritance of property among Muslims, was amended by Section 6 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939, to clarify the rights of a divorced wife to maintenance and property.
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Question 96Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
As per section 53 of IPC, the word "injury" denotes any harm whatever illegally caused to any person's
ABody
BMind
CReputation
All above
Why D. Section 53 of the IPC defines 'injury' as any harm illegally caused to a person's body, mind, reputation, or property, and this inclusive definition covers all forms of legally recognized harm under the Code.
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Question 97Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which of the following cases can be cured under section 465 of the code of criminal procedure, 1973?
AEntertaining of complaint without complying with section 195 and 340 of the Cr.P.C
The reading and recording of the evidence taken in one case into another companion case
CThe examination of witness in absence of the accused
DNon Compliance with 235(2)
Why B. Section 465 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, allows the court to cure irregularities in the recording of evidence if the substance of the evidence has been properly taken and the defect does not affect the fairness of the trial; this includes the reading and recording of evidence from one case into a companion case, provided the essential procedural integrity is maintained.
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Question 98Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which of the following statements hold true for de nova trials?
AOmission or illegality in the procedure even if it does not affect the core of the case can become a ground for calling de nova trials
A de nova trial should be the last resort
CThe court originally trying the case can order de nova trial
DNone of these
Why B. Under Section 435 of the CrPC, a de novo trial is permitted only when the original trial is vitiated by a fundamental defect that renders it unjust, and it must be ordered as a last resort to prevent miscarriage of justice.
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Question 99Land Acquisition Act
In case of land acquisition by the Central Government for public- private partnership projects, consent of how many affected families is mandated by the LARR Act?
A60%
70%
C80%
D90%
Why B. The LARR Act mandates that for land acquisition in public-private partnership projects, the consent of at least 70% of the affected families is required, ensuring that the majority of those directly impacted agree to the acquisition before it proceeds.
Question 100Law related to Taxation
A company which is not a domestic company will pay income tax at the rate of:-
A25%
B30%
40%
D50%
Why C. Under Section 115BAA of the Income Tax Act, 1961, a company that is not a domestic company opting for the new tax regime shall pay income tax at the rate of 40%.
The Bar Council of India typically declares the AIBE result about 30 to 40 days after the exam. Until then, this unofficial answer key lets you estimate your score immediately.
The passing cutoff is 45% (45/100) for General/OBC candidates and 40% (40/100) for SC/ST/PwD candidates.
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