All 100 questions of AIBE-15 (2020) Set A with the correct answer, an original explanation, and the exact bare-act provision a tap away. No negative marking. The qualifying cutoff is 45 of 100 for General and OBC, 40 of 100 for SC, ST and PwD.
AIBE 15 (XXI) Set A Answer Key 2020 with Solutions
Answer key at a glance
Question 1Cyber Law
Section 66A of Information Technology Act was held unconstitutional in the case of
AJustice K. S. Putta Swamy Vs Union of India
BM P Sharma Vs Satish Chandra
Shreya Singhal Vs Union Of India
DGagan Harsh Sharma Vs The State of Maharashtra
Why C. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was held unconstitutional because it violated the right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution by being overly broad, vague, and enabling arbitrary censorship of online communication.
Question 2Labour & Industrial Law
A Teacher is not a workman within the purview of Industrial Disputes Act, held in the case of
AThe Workmen Vs Greaves Cotton & Co. Ltd. & Ors
BJohn Joseph Khokar Vs Bhadange B. S. & ors
A. Sundarambal Vs Government of Goa
DDinesh Sharma and Ors. Vs State of Bihar
Why C. A teacher is not considered a workman under the Industrial Disputes Act because the role involves professional and academic duties that fall outside the scope of manual, clerical, or industrial labor typically covered by the Act, as established in Sundarambal Vs Government of Goa.
Question 3Labour & Industrial Law
According to Factories Act
"child" means a person who has not completed his fifteenth year of age;
B"child" means a person who has not completed his fourteenth year of age
C"child" means a person who has not completed his eighteenth year of age
D"child" means a person who has not completed his sixteenth year of age
Why A. Under Section 2(c) of the Factories Act, 1948, the term 'child' is legally defined as a person who has not completed his fifteenth year of age, and this definition is binding for all purposes under the Act, including restrictions on employment and safety provisions.
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Question 4ADR incl. Arbitration
The UNCITRAL Model Law and Rules do not become part of the Arbitration Act so as to become an aid to construe the provisions of the Act.- held in the case of
Union of India Vs East Coast Boat Builders and Engineers Ltd.,
BUnion of India Vs M.C. Mehta
CTata Press Ltd Vs Union of India
DUnion of India Vs Indian Change Chrome Ltd
Why A. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 incorporates the spirit of the UNCITRAL Model Law but does not automatically make its text part of the statute; judicial interpretation has consistently held that the Model Law may inform understanding only if the Act is silent or ambiguous, and cannot override the plain language of the Act itself.
Question 5ADR incl. Arbitration
According to Section 7(4) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, an arbitration agreement is in writing if it is contained in—
Aa document signed by the parties;
Ban exchange of letters, telex, telegrams or other means of telecommunication which provide a record of the agreement;
Can exchange of statements of claim and defence in which the existence of the agreement is alleged by one party and not denied by the other.
All of the above
Why D. An arbitration agreement is in writing under Section 7(4) if it is contained in a document signed by the parties, an exchange of letters, telegrams, telexes, or other means of telecommunication which provide a record of the agreement, or an exchange of statements of claim and defence in which the existence of an agreement is alleged by one party and not denied by the other — all of which satisfy the statutory requirement for a written agreement.
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Question 6ADR incl. Arbitration
Waiver of right to object deviance from arbitration agreement is mentioned under ______ of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act
ASection 7
Section 4
CSection 20
DSection 22
Why B. Section 4 provides that a party who knows that any provision of the arbitration agreement or any requirement under the Act has not been complied with, and yet proceeds with the arbitration without promptly objecting, is deemed to have waived the right to object later.
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Question 7Evidence (IEA / BSA)
A intentionally and falsely leads B to believe that certain land belongs to A, and thereby induces B to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes the property of A, and A seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that, at the time of the sale, he had no title. He will not be allowed to prove his want of title. Which Section of the Evidence Act is applicable?
ASection 92
BSection 124
Section 115
DSection 101
Why C. Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act prevents a person from denying the truth of a fact previously represented by them as true, when another person has acted upon that representation to their detriment.
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Question 8ADR incl. Arbitration
The Arbitration Act 1996 repeals
AThe Arbitration Act, 1940,
BThe Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937
CThe Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961.
All of the above
Why D. Section 88 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 explicitly repeals the Arbitration Act, 1940, the Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937, and the Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961, making all of these repealed by the new Act.
Question 9Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Section 265A to 265L, Chapter XXIA of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the concept of
AUnlawful Assembly
BArrest without warrant
CSearch and seizures
Plea bargaining
Why D. Plea bargaining is the legal principle governed by Section 265A of the Criminal Procedure Code, which permits an accused person to voluntarily plead guilty in exchange for a lesser sentence, subject to court approval and specific procedural safeguards.
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Question 10Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders is dealt under
ASection 109 of Cr.P.C.
Section 110 of Cr.P.C
CSection 111 of Cr.P.C.
DNone of the above
Why B. Section 110 of the Cr.P.C. empowers a Magistrate to require a person who is habitual to the commission of offences to show cause why they should not be ordered to give security for good behaviour, ensuring preventive action against recurrent criminal conduct.
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Question 11Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
X,Y, Z jointly promise to pay A an amount of Rs. 50,000/- Subsequently X,Y became untraceable. Can A compel Z to pay ?
A can, under Section 43 para 1
BA can under Section 49 para 1
CA cannot and will have to wait till X,Y become traceable
DZ can be compelled only for one third
Why A. Under Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act, when two or more persons make a joint promise, the promisee may, in the absence of a contrary agreement, compel any one or more of such joint promisors to perform the whole of the promise.
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Question 12Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them. This process is termed as
AAgency
Bailment
CGuarantee
DContingency
Why B. Bailment is defined under Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act as the delivery of goods by one person to another for some specific purpose, upon a contract that they shall be returned or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them.
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Question 13Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Section 14A inserted by the THE SPECIFIC RELIEF (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2018, relates to
Power of the Courts to engage experts
BEstablishment of Special Court
CExpeditious disposal of case
DSpecific performance with regard to contracts
Why A. Section 14A of the Specific Relief Act empowers the Court to engage independent experts to assist in understanding technical or specialized issues relevant to the subject matter of the suit, ensuring accurate factual assessment without substituting judicial judgment.
Question 14Administrative Law
Parliament may by law establish Administrative Tribunals under ____of the Constitution
AArticle 323B
Article 323A
CArticle 233
DArticle 323
Why B. Article 323A empowers Parliament to establish Administrative Tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the Union or a State.
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Question 15Professional Ethics & Contempt
The Bar Council of India has to lay down the standards of professional conduct and etiquette for the Advocates under
ASection 3 of the Advocate Act, 1961
Section 7 (1) (b) of the Advocate Act, 1961
CSection 17 of the Advocate Act, 1961
DSection 18 of the Advocate Act, 1961
Why B. Section 7(1)(b) of the Advocate Act, 1961 mandates the Bar Council of India to lay down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates, making it the exclusive statutory authority for this function.
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Question 16Professional Ethics & Contempt
According to Section 49 of the Advocate Act of 1961 the bar Council of India has power to make rules
AQualifications for membership of a Bar Council and the disqualifications for such membership
BThe class or category of persons entitled to be enrolled as advocates
CThe standards of legal education to be observed by universities in India and the inspection of universities for that purpose.
All of the above
Why D. Section 49 of the Advocate Act, 1961 empowers the Bar Council of India to make rules for all matters necessary for the conduct of the legal profession, including standards of professional conduct, etiquette, and disciplinary procedures, which collectively cover all the listed options.
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Question 17Family Law
Requisites of a valid adoption : no adoption shall be valid unless- (i) the person adopting has the capacity, and also the right, to take in adoption; (ii) the person giving in adoption has the capacity to do so; (iii) the person adopted is capable of being taken in adoption; and (iv) the adoption is made in compliance with the other conditions mentioned in this Chapter. - mentioned under
Section 6 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
BSection 8 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
CSection 12 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
DSection 10 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
Why A. Section 6 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act lays down the essential requisites for a valid adoption, specifying that no adoption shall be valid unless the adopter has capacity and right, the person giving in adoption has capacity, the adoptee is capable of being adopted, and all other conditions of the Chapter are complied with.
Question 18Family Law
According to the Muslim Women (Protection of Right Son Marriage) Act, 2019, any pronouncement of talaq as defined under the Act by a Muslim husband upon his wife, by words, either spoken or written or in electronic form or in any other manner whatsoever, shall be
AVoid
BCognizable
Ccompoundable
All of the above
Why D. Any pronouncement of talaq in the manner described is void and illegal under the Act, as it abolishes instantaneous triple talaq and ensures that marital dissolution can only occur through lawful and equitable procedures recognized by the statute.
Question 19Family Law
The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act (HSAA) 2005 provides for women:
Acoparcenary rights at par with men;
Binheritance rights in agricultural land from her parents at par with her brothers;
Cinheritance of the self-acquired agricultural land of her deceased husband
All of the above
Why D. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 grants daughters equal coparcenary rights in ancestral property as sons, recognizes a widow’s right to inherit as a Class I heir, and ensures that married daughters are not discriminated against in succession — making all these rights legally valid and enforceable under the Act.
Question 20Family Law
Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act provides for
ACustody of the Children
Permanent alimony and maintenance
CMaintenance Pendente lite
DDivision of matrimonial property
Why B. Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for permanent alimony and maintenance, which may be awarded by the court either at the time of decree or thereafter, to either spouse who is unable to maintain themselves, based on the financial capacity of the other spouse and the circumstances of the case.
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Question 21Family Law
A Hindu wife had been living with her children and all the children had been brought up by her without any assistance and help from the husband many years. The wife was entitled to separate residence and maintenance under
ASection 18(2)(f) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
BSection 18(2)(d) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
Section 18(2)(a) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
DSection 18(2)(g) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
Why C. Under Section 18(2)(a) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, a Hindu wife is entitled to separate residence and maintenance if the husband has deserted her without reasonable cause and without her consent, or if he has treated her with cruelty, or if he has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion, or if he has been guilty of bigamy, or if he has failed to maintain her for a period of two years or more.
Question 22Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Imposition of compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences is dealt under
ASection 33 of CPC
Section 35A of CPC
CSection 30 of CPC
DSection 35 of CPC
Why B. Section 35A of the Code of Civil Procedure empowers the court to impose compensatory costs when a false or vexatious claim or defence is made, ensuring that parties are held accountable for abusing the judicial process.
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Question 23Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which provision under the Code of Civil Procedure deals with substituted service of summons upon the defendant?
AO.5 R.19A
BO.5 R.19
O.5 R.20
DO.5 R.21
Why C. Order 5 Rule 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure provides for substituted service of summons when the defendant cannot be served in the ordinary manner, allowing the court to direct service by alternative means such as publication or affixing the summons on a conspicuous part of the defendant's residence.
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Question 24Evidence (IEA / BSA)
The question is, whether A owes B rupees 10,000. Which of the following statements are relevant under Evidence Act;
AThe facts that A asked C to lend him money,
BD said to C in A's presence and hearing— "I advise you not to trust A, for he owes B 10,000 rupees”
CA went away without making any answer
All of the above
Why D. Under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, any fact that shows the existence of a state of mind, such as intention, knowledge, or good faith, is relevant when it relates to a fact in issue. Statements indicating A’s intention to repay, knowledge of the debt, or conduct consistent with owing the amount are all relevant because they help establish the state of mind bearing on the debt.
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Question 25Evidence (IEA / BSA)
So much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered by the police may be proved under
ASection 25 of the Evidence Act
BSection 26 of the Evidence Act
Section 27 of the Evidence Act
DSection 29 of the Evidence Act
Why C. Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act allows any part of a statement made by an accused to the police, which leads to the discovery of a fact, to be proved if it relates distinctly to that fact, regardless of whether the statement amounts to a full confession.
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Question 26Evidence (IEA / BSA)
When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law or of science, or art, or as to identity of handwriting, or finger impressions, the opinions upon that point of persons specially skilled in such foreign law, science or art, or in questions as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions are relevant facts. - this is under _____ of the Evidence Act
ASection 42
Section 45
CSection 50
DSection 55
Why B. Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that opinions of persons specially skilled in foreign law, science, art, handwriting, or finger impressions are relevant facts when the Court needs to form an opinion on such matters.
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Question 27Environmental Law
According to Environmental Protection Act, 1986, 'environmental pollutant' means
Aany solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, helpful to environment
Bonly gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
Dany solid, liquid present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
Why C. Under Section 2(a) of the Environmental Protection Act, 1986, 'environmental pollutant' is legally defined as any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment — this is the statutory definition that governs the term and excludes any broader or narrower interpretation.
Question 28Environmental Law
National Green Tribunal cannot exercise its Jurisdiction with reference to
AWildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
BScheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
CThe Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
Both A & B
Why D. Under Section 3 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, the Tribunal cannot exercise jurisdiction over matters relating to the enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment unless such right is specifically provided under the environmental laws listed in the Schedule to the Act, and it also cannot entertain disputes arising from the implementation of any law not listed therein.
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Question 29Cyber Law
An attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details (and sometimes, indirectly, money) by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication - is known as
APharming
BSmishing
Phishing
DDidling
Why C. Phishing is an offence under Section 66C of the Information Technology Act, 2000, which criminalizes the fraudulent use of another person's electronic signature, password, or any other unique identification feature for the purpose of wrongful gain.
Question 30Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
The Plea Bargaining is applicable only in respect of those offences for which punishment of imprisonment is up to a period of
7 years.
B10 years
C11 years
D14 years
Why A. Under Section 265A of the CrPC, plea bargaining is applicable only for offences where the maximum punishment prescribed is imprisonment for a term of seven years or less.
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Question 31Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
"From a plain reading of Section 195 Cr.P.C. it is manifest that it comes into operation at the stage when the Court intends to take cognizance of an offence under Section 190(1) Cr PC.; and it has nothing to do with the statutory power of the police to investigate into an F.I.R. which discloses a cognizable offence....In other words, the statutory power of the Police to investigate under the Code is not in any way controlled or circumscribed by Section 195 Cr.PC." - This was held by the Supreme Court in the case of
ANalini Vs State of Tamilnadu
Raj Singh Vs State [(1998)]
CShamsher Singh Vs State of Punjab
DState of Himachal Pradesh Vs Tara Dutta
Why B. Section 195 Cr.P.C. requires prior sanction of the court before taking cognizance of certain offences, but it does not restrict the police from investigating a cognizable offence upon registration of an F.I.R.; the police's investigative power under the Code operates independently of this procedural requirement.
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Question 32Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Indemnity contract is defined under
Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act
BSection 67 of the Indian Contract Act
CSection 127 of the Indian Contract Act
DSection 128 of the Indian Contract Act
Why A. An indemnity contract is defined under Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act, which states that one party promises to save the other from any loss caused by the conduct of the promisor or any other person, establishing the core legal principle of indemnity as a contractual obligation to compensate for loss.
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Question 33Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Peek Vs. Gurney is a famous case related to
ACoercion
Fraud
CMistake of fact
DMistake of law
Why B. Under Section 17 of the Indian Contract Act, fraud includes any act committed by a party to a contract, or with their connivance, to induce another party to enter into the contract by deceit or misrepresentation. Peek v. Gurney is a well-known example where such fraudulent conduct invalidated the agreement.
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Question 34Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which provision under Criminal procedure Code, 1973 deals with the procedure to be adopted by the Magistrate to record confessions and statements?
ASection 162
Section 164
CSection 163A
DSection 165
Why B. Section 164 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 prescribes the procedure for a Magistrate to record confessions and statements, ensuring they are made voluntarily and in the presence of the accused without inducement, threat, or promise.
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Question 35Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Attachment of property of person absconding can be done under Section — of Cr.P.C.
83
B82
C85
D86
Why A. Under Section 83 of the Cr.P.C., a court may order the attachment of property of a person who is absconding to ensure the execution of a decree or order, as the law permits preventive attachment when the person is evading legal process.
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Question 36Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Magistrate may dispense with personal attendance of accused under Section ____of Cr.P.C
A201
B204
205
D200
Why C. Under Section 205 of the Cr.P.C., a Magistrate may dispense with the personal attendance of the accused and allow them to appear through a pleader, provided the offence is not punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years.
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Question 37Constitutional Law
The Supreme Court invoked the principle of 'Transformative Constitutionalism' in the case of
Navtej Singh Johar Vs Union of India (2018)
BSuresh Kumar Koushal Vs Naz Foundation(2010)
CNaz Foundation Vs Government of NCT of Delhi, (2009)
DAruna Roy Vs Union of India, (2002)
Why A. The Supreme Court invoked the principle of transformative constitutionalism to uphold the dignity and autonomy of individuals by decriminalizing consensual same-sex relationships, affirming that the Constitution guarantees equal protection and fundamental rights to all persons, regardless of sexual orientation.
Question 38Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
The provisions of Indian Penal Code apply also to any offence committed by
Aany citizen of India in any place without and beyond India;
Bany person on any ship or aircraft registered in India wherever it may be
Cany person in any place without and beyond India committing offence targeting a computer resource located in India.
All of the above
Why D. Section 1 of the Indian Penal Code provides that the Code applies to any offence committed within India, to any citizen of India outside India, and to any person on any ship or aircraft registered in India, regardless of where the offence is committed.
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Question 39Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Section 105 (H) of Cr.P.C deals
Forfeiture of property in certain cases.
BNotice of forfeiture of property
CManagement of properties seized or forfeited
DIdentifying unlawfully acquired property
Why A. Section 105(H) of the Cr.P.C. provides for the forfeiture of property in certain cases where the property is found to have been used in the commission of an offence or is otherwise connected to criminal activity, ensuring that such property cannot be retained by the offender.
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Question 40Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Bar to taking cognizance after lapse of the period of limitation - is dealt under
ASection 178 of Cr. P.C.
BSection 469 of Cr. P.C.
CSection 478 of Cr. P.C.
Section 468 of Cr. P.C.
Why D. Section 468 of the Cr. P.C. prescribes the period of limitation for taking cognizance of offences, and bars judicial action if the limitation period has expired, unless an exception applies under the Code.
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Question 41Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
"decree-holder" means
any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
Bany person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order incapable of execution has been made
Cany Citizen in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
Dany corporation in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
Why A. Under Section 2(3) of the Code of Civil Procedure, a decree-holder is defined as any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made, establishing that the term refers exclusively to the party who has obtained a judicial order enforceable by the court.
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Question 42Intellectual Property Law
Under the Patent Act which of the following are not patentable?
Aa method of agriculture or horticulture
Ba presentation of information
Ctopography of integrated circuits
All of the above
Why D. Section 3 of the Patent Act lists specific categories of inventions that are excluded from patentability, including mere discoveries of scientific principles, methods of agriculture, and inventions contrary to public order or morality — hence all the listed options fall under this non-patentable scope.
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Question 43Intellectual Property Law
World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has replaced pre¬existing
AGATT
BIRPI
CTPRM
DPCT
Why B. The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) replaced the BIRPI, which was the earlier international body responsible for administering intellectual property conventions, as part of a structural evolution to better coordinate global IP protection under a more robust and specialized framework.
Question 44Constitutional Law
Anuradha Bhasin Vs Union Of India on 10 January, 2020 relates to a challenge under Article 32 of the Constitution seeking issuance of an appropriate writ
for setting aside orders of the Government by which all modes of communication including Internet have been shut down in J&K
Bfor setting aside orders of the Government by which private property was sought to be acquired in J&K
Cfor setting aside orders of the Government by which J&K was constituted as a UT
Dfor setting aside orders of the Government by which Ladakh was separated.
Why A. Article 32 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights, including the right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a), which encompasses access to the Internet as a medium of communication; thus, it provides the legal basis to challenge government orders that suspend all modes of communication, including Internet shutdowns, as violations of fundamental rights.
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Question 45Constitutional Law
Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was struck down under Art. 19(1) (a) read with Article 19 (2) in the case of
AJustice K. S. Puttaswamy Vs Union of India
BKharak singh Vs State of U.P.
CGovinda Vs State of M.P.
Shreya Singhal Vs Union of India
Why D. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was struck down because it imposed unreasonable restrictions on free speech guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a), and the restriction was not saved by Article 19(2) as it was overly broad and vague, failing the test of proportionality and precision required for limiting fundamental rights.
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Question 46Constitutional Law
Article 145(3) of the Indian Constitution states that The minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be....
ATwo
BThree
Five
DNine
Why C. Article 145(3) of the Constitution of India mandates that a minimum of five Judges must sit to decide any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution or to hear a reference under Article 143.
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Question 47Public Interest Litigation
The utility of Public Interest Litigation
ALiberalised locus standi
BThe proceedings are Non-Adversarial
CProcedural requirements are liberalized
All of the above
Why D. Under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, the High Court has the power to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose, which includes entertaining Public Interest Litigation to address public wrongs or injuries even when the aggrieved party is not directly before the court.
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Question 48Constitutional Law
The petitioner, a professor of political science who had done substantial research and deeply interested in ensuring proper implementation of the constitutional provisions, challenged the practice followed by the state of Bihar in repromulgating a number of ordinances without getting the approval of the legislature. The court held that the petitioner as a member of public has 'sufficient interest' to maintain a petition under Article 32 - This relates to the case of
AParmanand Katara Vs Union of India - AIR 1989, SC 2039
D.C. Wadhwa Vs State of Bihar, AIR 1987 SC 579
CNeeraja Choudhari Vs State of Madhya Pradesh, AIR 1984 SC 1099
DChameli Singh Vs State of U.P., AIR 1996 SC 1051
Why B. Under Article 32, any member of the public with sufficient interest in the enforcement of fundamental rights can approach the Supreme Court, even without being directly affected, as the court recognizes public-spirited litigation to uphold constitutional values.
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Question 49Public Interest Litigation
Where a legal wrong or a legal injury is caused to a person or to a determinate class of persons by reason of violation of any constitutional or legal right or any burden is imposed in contravention of any constitutional or legal provision or without authority of law or any such legal wrong or legal injury or illegal burden is threatened and such person or determinate class of persons by reasons of poverty, helplessness or disability or socially or economically disadvantaged position unable to approach the court for relief, any member of public can maintain an application for an appropriate direction, order or writ in the High Court under Article 226 and in case any breach of fundamental rights of such persons or determinate class of persons, in this court under Article 32 seeking judicial redress for the legal wrong or legal injury caused to such person or determinate class of persons." - Justice Bhagwati in the case of
APeoples Union for Democratic Rights Vs Union of India
BAshok Kumar Pandey Vs State of West Bengal
S. P. Gupta Vs Union of India
DJanata Dal Vs H. S. Chowdhary
Why C. This principle of public interest litigation, allowing any member of the public to approach the court on behalf of those unable to do so themselves, was established under Article 32 of the Constitution of India in S. P. Gupta Vs Union of India.
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Question 50Law related to Taxation
The definition of 'money' under GST law does not include
ALetter of Credit
Currency held for numismatic value
CPay order
DTraveler cheque
Why B. Under Section 2(74) of the CGST Act, 'money' excludes currency held for numismatic value because such currency is treated as a collectible item with historical or artistic significance, not as a medium of exchange or legal tender for goods or services.
Question 51Constitutional Law
Under Article 279A GST Council is constituted by
APrime Minister and his Council of Ministers
BRespective Governors of the State
The President
DA collective body of Union and States
Why C. The President constitutes the GST Council under Article 279A of the Constitution of India, as the provision explicitly vests this power in the President to ensure central authority in the formation of the council responsible for GST matters.
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Question 52Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
The definition of Contract is defined under
ASection 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act.
Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act.
CSection 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act.
DSection 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act.
Why B. Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act defines a contract as an agreement enforceable by law, which is the foundational legal principle distinguishing a contract from a mere agreement.
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Question 53Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under
Section 326 B of the Indian Penal Code
BSection 120 B of the Indian Penal Code
CSection 509 of the Indian Penal Code
DSection 295B of the Indian Penal Code
Why A. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under Section 326B of the Indian Penal Code, which specifically criminalizes such acts with intent to cause permanent or partial damage, deformity, burns, maiming, disfigurement or disability.
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Question 54Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
A is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. Here, if there was no want of proper caution on the part of A, his act is
AAn Offence of murder
BAn offence of Culpable homicide
Not an offence
DAn Offence of causing grievous hurt
Why C. Under Section 30 of the BNS, an act that causes death without any intention or knowledge of likely harm, and without any want of proper caution, is not an offence.
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Question 55Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
A, with the intention of causing Z to be convicted of a criminal conspiracy, writes a letter in imitation of Z's handwriting, purporting to be addressed to an accomplice in such criminal conspiracy, and puts the letter in a place which he knows that the officers of the police are likely to search - A has committed an Offence under
ASection 256 of IPC
Section 192 of IPC
CSection 195 A of IPC
DSection 201 of IPC
Why B. Section 192 of the Indian Penal Code defines the offence of fabricating false evidence with intent to cause any person to be convicted of an offence, which applies when a person intentionally creates or alters evidence to mislead a court or public servant in the course of judicial proceedings.
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Question 56Constitutional Law
India, that is Bharat, shall be a
AFederation of States
Bquasi federal
Union of states
DUnitary state of a special type
Why C. Article 1 of the Constitution of India declares that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States, establishing that the country is an indestructible union of states, with no state having the right to secede.
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Question 57Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
In M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC1086 (Sri Ram Fertilizers case) the court held that
In escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability.
BIn escape of a dangerous animal the owner is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability.
CIn escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability
DA company or a corporation is not a state and hence not liable for leak of toxic gas affecting the health of the people
Why A. Under the Constitution of India, an enterprise engaged in inherently dangerous activities is strictly and absolutely liable for harm caused by accidents involving hazardous substances, without any defense or exception, because the state has a constitutional duty to protect the environment and the right to life includes the right to a healthy environment.
Question 58Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, Where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending to do so gratuitously, and such other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the latter is bound to make compensation to the former in respect of, or to restore, the thing so done or delivered. This principle is known as
AA Contract of Uberrimae fide
BImplied Agency
Quantum meruit
DDe nova contract
Why C. Quantum meruit is the legal principle under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act that obliges a person who has received a benefit from another's lawful act, not intended as a gift, to compensate the provider to prevent unjust enrichment.
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Question 59Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Agreement is
a promise or set of promises forming consideration to each other
Benforceable by law
Cenforceable contract
DUn enforceable by law
Why A. An agreement is formed when one party makes a promise and the other party accepts it, and such promise or set of promises constitutes consideration to each other, as defined under Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act.
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Question 60Land Acquisition Act
Under the Land Acquisition Act, the expression "land" includes
Abenefits to arise out of land
Bthings attached to the earth
Cthings permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth
All of the above
Why D. The term 'land' under the Land Acquisition Act is defined broadly to encompass not only the surface area but also any rights, interests, or benefits attached to it, including easements, profits à prendre, and other appurtenances, making all listed options valid inclusions.
Question 61Land Acquisition Act
Temporary occupation of waste or arable land, procedure when difference as to compensation exists is provided under
ASection 32 of Land Acquisition Act
BSection 30 of Land Acquisition Act
Section 35 of Land Acquisition Act
DSection 31 of Land Acquisition Act
Why C. Section 35 of the Land Acquisition Act provides the procedure for temporary occupation of waste or arable land and outlines the process to be followed when there is a difference as to the amount of compensation.
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Question 62Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Suits by indigent persons is dealt under
AOrder 44 of C.P.C
Order 33 of C.P.C
COrder 55 of C.P.C
DOrder 22 of C.P.C
Why B. Order 33 of the Civil Procedure Code governs suits by indigent persons, allowing them to file suits without paying court fees by establishing procedures for proving indigence and granting relief to those unable to afford litigation costs.
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Question 63Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Res gestae, Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction is dealt under
Section 6 of the Evidence Act
BSection 17 of the Evidence Act
CSection 18 of the Evidence Act
DSection 20 of the Evidence Act
Why A. Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the relevancy of facts that, though not in issue, are so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the same transaction, commonly known as res gestae.
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Question 64Professional Ethics & Contempt
Among other things, the Function of Bar council of India includes laying down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates. - Under which section of the Advocates Act
Section 7
BSection 8
CSection 9
DSection 6
Why A. Section 7 of the Advocates Act specifies the functions of the Bar Council of India, including the authority to lay down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates.
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Question 65Professional Ethics & Contempt
According to Justice 'Abbot Parry' what are the "Seven Lamps of Advocacy".
A(i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) professionalism (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
(i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
C(i) influence (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
D(i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) seriousness (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
Why B. The seven qualities — Honesty, Courage, Industry, Wit, Eloquence, Judgment, and Fellowship — are recognized as the essential virtues that define the ethical and professional character of an advocate, forming the foundational ideals of legal practice.
Question 66Company Law
Minimum number of Directors in a Public company
3
B10
C12
D5
Why A. Under Section 149(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, a public company must have a minimum of three directors to ensure proper governance and accountability in its management structure.
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Question 67Company Law
An associate company, in relation to another company, means
Aa company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company
a company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company
Ca company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and does not include a joint venture company
Da company in which that other company has full shares, and is a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company
Why B. An associate company, as defined under Section 2(46) of the Companies Act, 2013, means a company in which another company has significant influence but which is not a subsidiary, and includes a joint venture company, distinguishing it from subsidiaries by the absence of control and presence of significant influence.
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Question 68Constitutional Law
The Supreme Court has legalised living wills and passive euthanasia subject to certain conditions in the case of
AAruna Ramachandra Shanbaug Vs Union of India (2011)
Common Cause Vs Union of India, (2018) 5 SCC 1.
CGian Kaur Vs State of Punjab (1996)
DD Chenna Jagadeeswar Vs State of A.P. ( 1988)
Why B. The Supreme Court recognised the right to die with dignity as part of the right to life under Article 21, and permitted passive euthanasia and living wills subject to strict procedural safeguards to prevent abuse.
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Question 69Constitutional Law
Article 310 of the Constitution mentions about
ADoctrine of Immunities and Instrumentalities with reference to civil servants
BDoctrine of legitimate expectation with reference to civil servants
CDoctrine of natural justice with reference to civil servants
Doctrine of pleasure with reference to civil servants is
Why D. Article 310 of the Constitution of India establishes that civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the President or the Governor, as applicable, meaning their service can be terminated at any time without assigning any reason, subject to statutory safeguards.
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Question 70Constitutional Law
Right to know the antecedents of the candidates in the election flow from
Article 19 (1)(a)
BArticle 20
CArticle 13
DArticle 14
Why A. The right to know the antecedents of candidates in an election flows from Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India, which guarantees the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression, including the right to receive information essential for making an informed choice in elections.
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Question 71Constitutional Law
In the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, the expression 'liberty' is followed by the words
AOf status and opportunity
Of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
CAssuring the dignity of the individual
DJustice, social economic and political
Why B. The Preamble guarantees liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship as essential freedoms that form the foundation of India's democratic order, ensuring individuals can hold and practice their convictions without state interference.
Question 72Law related to Taxation
According to Income Tax Act "zero coupon bond" means a bond
Aissued by any infrastructure capital company or infrastructure capital fund or public sector company or scheduled bank on or after the 1st day of June, 2005;
Bin respect of which no payment and benefit is received or receivable before maturity or redemption from infrastructure capital company or infrastructure capital fund or public sector company or scheduled bank
Cwhich the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify in this behalf.
All of the above
Why D. A zero coupon bond under the Income Tax Act is defined as a bond that does not pay periodic interest, is issued at a discount, and matures at face value, with the difference treated as income; all these characteristics together form the legal definition under the Act.
Question 73Constitutional Law
Provisions relating to GST are inserted in the Constitution by
The Constitution (one hundred and first) Act 2016
BThe Constitution (one hundred and second) Act 2016
CThe Constitution (eighty fourth) Act 2016
DThe Constitution (seventy seven) Act 2016
Why A. The Constitution (One Hundred and First) Act, 2016 introduced the Goods and Services Tax by amending the Constitution to enable a unified indirect tax regime, empowering both the Union and the States to levy GST on supply of goods and services.
Question 74Evidence (IEA / BSA)
A is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attacked, and goals are broken open. The occurrence of these facts is relevant, as forming part of the general transaction, though A may not have been present at all of them. - under which section of the India Evidence Act.
ASection 12
Section 6
CSection 3
DSection 5
Why B. Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that facts which are so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the same transaction are relevant, even if they occurred at different times or places, as long as they are part of a single, continuous event.
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Question 75Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Section 110 of the Evidence Act deals with
ADocumentary Evidence
BExclusion of Oral Evidence
Burden of proof as to ownership
DProof of guilt.
Why C. Section 110 of the Indian Evidence Act places the burden of proof as to ownership on the person who asserts it, when possession of property is proved and the ownership is disputed.
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Question 76Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Section 113 (A) of the Evidence Act deals with
APresumption as to abetment of murder
BPresumption as to rape and abetment of suicide by a woman
CPresumption as to abetment of kidnap of a girl
Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman
Why D. Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act creates a presumption that when a married woman commits suicide within seven years of her marriage and it is shown that she was subjected to cruelty by her husband or his relatives, the court may presume that such cruelty abetted her suicide.
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Question 77Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
In which of the following case the offence of sedition was in issue
AQueen Empress Vs Bal Gangadhar Tilak
BNiharendu Dutt Mazumdar Vs Emperor
CKedar Nath singh Vs State of Bihar
All of the above
Why D. Section 124A of the BNS defines sedition as any act that brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the Government established by law, and this applies to all listed scenarios where such conduct is alleged.
Question 78Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs. - is an offence under
ASection 295
Section 295A
CSection 265A
DSection 276
Why B. Section 298 of the BNS punishes words, gestures, or acts intended to wound the religious feelings of any person, but Section 295A specifically covers deliberate and malicious acts intended to outrage religious feelings by insulting religion or religious beliefs, making it the correct provision for this offence.
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Question 79Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Under Section 29 of Cr.P.C. The Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorized by law except
AA sentence of death
BImprisonment for life
CImprisonment for a term exceeding seven years.
All of the above
Why D. Section 29 of the Cr.P.C. prohibits the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate from passing a sentence of death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment for more than seven years, meaning it cannot impose any of these sentences — hence all of the above are excluded.
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Question 80Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Provision regarding filing of suits by an alien under the Code of Civil procedure is dealt under
ASection 21A
BSection 15
CSection 21B
Section 83
Why D. Section 83 of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that an alien may file a suit in India subject to the condition that the country of which the alien is a subject or citizen allows Indian citizens to sue in its courts on the same terms.
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Question 81Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
An order issued by court under Civil Procedure Code 1908 as per order XXI, rule 46, for recovery of amount due to judgment creditor - is known as
AIT Order
Garnishee Order
CDecree Holder order
DBank Order
Why B. A Garnishee Order is issued under Order XXI, Rule 46 of the Civil Procedure Code 1908 to direct a third party holding money or property of the judgment debtor to pay it directly to the judgment creditor, thereby enabling recovery of the decree amount without requiring execution against the debtor's assets.
Question 82Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Section 88 read with Order XXXV of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with
Interpleader suit
BInterlocutory Order
CRestitution Order
DAttachment Order
Why A. An interpleader suit is a proceeding where a person holding property or money claimed by two or more parties, and not claiming any interest in it themselves, files a suit to compel the claimants to litigate their rights among themselves, so that the holder is not subjected to multiple liabilities.
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Question 83Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Vis major means
Act of God
BAct of Individual
CAct of other party
DAct of plaintiff
Why A. Vis major, or Act of God, refers to an unforeseeable and unavoidable event beyond human control, which renders performance of a contract impossible, and under Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, such an event discharges the parties from their contractual obligations.
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Question 84Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
According to Classical doctrine of Act of State in law of Torts means
an act of the sovereign power of a country, that cannot be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
Ban act of the Judiciary of a country, that cannot be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
Can act of the sovereign power of a country, that can be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
DNone of the above
Why A. An act of state is a sovereign action taken by a government within its own territory, which municipal courts cannot question or interfere with, as it falls outside their jurisdiction and is considered beyond judicial review under the principle of comity and respect for state sovereignty.
Question 85Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
In Torts, all persons who aid, or counsel, or direct or join in the committal of a wrongful act, are known as
AAbettors
Joint tort feasors.
CTort holders
DTort holders in common
Why B. Joint tort feasors are individuals who collectively participate in, assist, or conspire to commit a wrongful act, making them equally liable for the resulting harm under the principle of joint liability in tort law.
Question 86Environmental Law
M.C. Mehta Vs Union of India 1986 Shriram food and Fertilisers case relates to
Olieum Gas leak
BGanga water cleaning
CChild labour
DBonded labour
Why A. The case relates to the Olieum Gas leak because Article 21 of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to life, which includes the right to a healthy environment, and imposes strict liability on industries engaged in hazardous activities for harm caused to life or health.
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Question 87Administrative Law
A.K. Kraipak Vs Union of India relates to
Likelihood of Bias
BDelegated Legislation
CAdministrative Discretion
DNotice
Why A. The case establishes that even a remote likelihood of bias in a decision-making body vitiates the proceedings, as it undermines the fundamental principle of natural justice requiring impartiality under the Constitution of India.
Question 88Administrative Law
Judicial control of Delegated Legislation may be exercised on the ground of
ADoctrine of Ultravires
BMalafides
CExclusion of Judicial Review
All of the above
Why D. Judicial control of delegated legislation is grounded in the principle that any power delegated by the legislature must remain within constitutional limits, cannot be arbitrary or excessive, and must conform to the purpose and scope of the parent statute, ensuring accountability and protection of fundamental rights.
Question 89Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
The principle of Res Judicata is dealt under Section — of CPC
A9
B10
11
D12
Why C. Section 11 of the Civil Procedure Code lays down the principle of Res Judicata, which prevents the same dispute between the same parties from being litigated again after a final decision by a competent court.
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Question 90Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Section 14 of the C.P.C. deals with
APresumption as to decisions of tribunals
Presumption as to foreign judgments
CPresumption as to judgments of the lower court
DPresumption as to judgments of High Court
Why B. Section 14 of the C.P.C. establishes the presumption that a foreign judgment is valid and conclusive between the parties, unless proven otherwise, thereby recognizing the principle of comity and finality of judgments rendered by competent foreign courts.
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Question 91Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
A, residing in Delhi, publishes in Kolkata statements defamatory of B. B may sue A
AOnly in Delhi
BOnly in Kolkata
Cin both the place of Delhi and Kolkata
either in Kolkata or in Delhi.
Why D. A suit for defamation may be instituted either where the wrongful act was committed or where the plaintiff resides and suffers harm; since the defamatory statements were published in Kolkata and the plaintiff is affected there, and also because the defendant resides in Delhi, the suit can be filed in either location.
Question 92Labour & Industrial Law
"Mere illegality of the strike does not per se spell unjustifiability" - Justice Krishna Iyer . Name the case.
AChandramalai Estate Vs Its workmen
BAssociated Cement Ltd., Vs Their workmen
Gujarat Steel Tubes Vs Gujarat Steel Tubes Mazdoor Sabha
DIndian General Navigation of Railway Co. Ltd., Vs Their workmen
Why C. The case establishes that a strike may be illegal under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, but its illegality alone does not automatically make it unjustified — the employer’s conduct and the workers’ grievances must also be considered to determine fairness.
Question 93Labour & Industrial Law
A workman aggrieved by the order of ____ may directly make an application to the labour court or tribunal for adjudication of the dispute and the court/tribunal is empowered to adjudicate such dispute as it had been referred to it by the appropriate government
ADismissal, discharge and retrenchment
Dismissal , discharge, retrenchment or otherwise termination of service
CDischarge simpliciter exclusively
DDismissal and retrenchment exclusively
Why B. Under Section 2A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, a workman aggrieved by dismissal, discharge, retrenchment or otherwise termination of service is entitled to directly approach the labour court or tribunal without prior referral by the appropriate government, as such actions are deemed to be industrial disputes even without formal referral.
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Question 94Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
The national consumer dispute redressal commission was constituted in the year
1988
B1998
C1999
D1997
Why A. The National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission was constituted in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, as the apex body for redressal of consumer complaints at the national level, with implementation beginning after the necessary administrative and procedural framework was established following the Act's enactment.
Question 95Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
What is the limitation period applicable to the three forums in entertaining a complaint under The Consumer Protection Act,1986
A3 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
B5 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
C4 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
2 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
Why D. Under Section 24A of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, a complaint must be filed within two years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen, and this period applies uniformly to all three consumer forums.
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Question 96Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Under Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under the age of.
A14 years
7 years
C18 years
D21 years
Why B. Under Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code, nothing is an offence if done by a child under seven years of age, as such a child is deemed incapable of committing an offence due to the irrebuttable presumption of doli incapax — the legal principle that a child below seven lacks the mental capacity to form criminal intent.
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Question 97Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
R. V. Dudley & Stephen stands for the principle that
Killing an innocent life to save his own is not a defence and necessity cannot be pleaded as a defence against murder
BNecessity can be pleaded as a defence against murder, killing an innocent life to save his own may become inevitable
CKilling out of mercy is a defence and necessity cannot be pleaded as a defence against murder.
DNone of the above
Why A. Under Section 300 of the BNS, killing an innocent person to save one's own life does not constitute a valid defence of necessity, as the law does not permit taking an innocent life even under extreme duress.
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Question 98Family Law
On and from the commencement of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 , in a Joint Hindu family governed by the Mitakshara law, conferring on daughter coparcenary status by substituting new section for
Section 6
BSection 10
CSection 11
DSection 13
Why A. Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, as amended in 2005, confers coparcenary status on daughters by birth, making them equal to sons in the joint Hindu family governed by Mitakshara law, and substitutes the original provision to this effect.
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Question 99Family Law
Section 5 of Hindu Marriage Act relates to
AVoid marriages
BVoidable marriages
CCeremonies of Hindu marriage
Conditions of Hindu marriage
Why D. Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, lays down the essential conditions for a valid Hindu marriage, including requirements like monogamy, mental capacity, age, and prohibition of sapinda relationships, making it the legal foundation for determining the validity of such marriages.
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Question 100Family Law
A marriage between a girl of 22 years marries her maternal uncles son of 23 years in accordance with the Special Marriage Act. Such marriage is
AValid
BVoidable
Void
DValid only in north India
Why C. Under Section 4 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954, a marriage is void if the parties are within the prohibited degrees of relationship, which includes marriage between a person and their maternal uncle's son, as it falls under the category of sapinda relationship.
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