All 100 questions of AIBE-14 (2019) Set A with the correct answer, an original explanation, and the exact bare-act provision a tap away. No negative marking. The qualifying cutoff is 45 of 100 for General and OBC, 40 of 100 for SC, ST and PwD.
AIBE 14 (XXI) Set A Answer Key 2019 with Solutions
Answer key at a glance
Question 1Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which one of the following sentence is correctly method?
AIn India, consideration must follow from promisee only.
BIn India, consideration must follow from only promisor or only promisee.
CIn India, consideration must follow from promisor or any other person.
DIn India, consideration must follow from promisee or any other person
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Question 2Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Assertion (A): Collateral transactions to wagering are valid.
Reason (R): only wagering agreements are declared void under section 30 of the Indian contract Act.
Codes:
A(a) is true, but (r) is false.
B(a) is false, but (r) is true.
CBoth (a) and (r) are true, but (r) is not correct explanation of (a)
Both (a) and (r) are true, and (r) is correct explanation of (a)
Why D. Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act declares only wagering agreements to be void, but does not affect collateral transactions that are independent and lawful in nature, making them valid even if connected to a wager.
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Question 3Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Term 'holder' include
AThe payee
BThe bearer
CThe endorsed
All of the above
Why D. Under Section 8 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, a holder includes any person entitled in their own name to the possession of the instrument and to receive or recover the amount due thereon, and this definition encompasses the payee, endorsee, and bearer, making all listed options correct.
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Question 4Family Law
Under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act,1939 a Muslim wife can seek Dissolution of marriage if the husband fails to perform marital obligation for :
A2 year
3 year
C4 year
D5 year
Why B. Under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939, a Muslim wife may seek dissolution of marriage if the husband has failed to perform his marital obligations for a period of three years, as this duration establishes a legally recognized ground for desertion and non-performance of duties under Islamic law as codified in the Act.
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Question 5Constitutional Law
The Concept of 'Curative' Petition was introduced by the Supreme Court of India in the case of
Rupa Ashok Hura V/s Ashok Hura,AIR 2002 SC 1771
BM.C.Mehta V/s Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1087
CKrishna Swami V/s Union of India, (1992) 45 CC 605
DSheela Barse V/s Union of India, (1986) 35 CC 5962
Why A. The Supreme Court recognized the curative petition as a final remedy to prevent abuse of process and to address gross miscarriage of justice, arising from the inherent power of the Court under the Constitution to ensure justice.
Question 6Constitutional Law
Right to Fare Legal Aid was recognised as a Fundamental Right under Act 21 of Indian Constitution in the case of-
AHussaainara Khatoon V/s State of Bihar, AIR 1979 SC 1360
BM.H Hoskot V/s State of Maharashtra, AIR 1978 SC 1548
CMadhu Mehta V/s Union of India (1989) 4 SC 1548
DRudal Shah V/s State of Bihar (1983) 45 SC 14
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Question 7Family Law
The case of Muhammad Allahdad Khan Vs Muhammad Ismail Khan is related to:
APre-emption
BGift
CMahr
Acknowledgement of paternity
Why D. Under Mohammedan Law, an acknowledgement of paternity is a recognized mode of establishing legitimate parentage when biological proof is lacking, and it binds the acknowledging father to recognize the child as his own, thereby conferring legitimacy and inheritance rights.
Question 8Family Law
In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court was in 2017 declared pronouncements of talaq three times at a time by a Muslim husband as unconstitutional?
Shayara Bano V/s Union of India
BShassnim Ara V/s State of U.P
CBaitahira V/s Ali Hasan
DDanial latifi V/s Union of India
Why A. The Supreme Court held that instant triple talaq violates the right to equality under Article 14, the right against discrimination under Article 15, and the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, as it arbitrarily deprives Muslim women of marital dignity and legal protection.
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Question 9Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
'Mesne Profits' of property means:
Those profits by which the person in wrongful possession of such property actually received or might have received there from, together with interest on such profits.
BThe profits due to improvements made by person in wrongful possession.
CBoth A & B
DNone of the above.
Why A. Mesne profits, as defined under Section 2(12) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, means those profits by which the person in wrongful possession of such property actually received or might have received therefrom, together with interest on such profits.
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Question 10Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following is not a legal representative?
AExecutor and administrators.
BHindu coparceners.
CCreditor
DIntermeddler
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Question 11Public Interest Litigation
Public Interest litigation is relaxation of which of the following requirements:
AJurisdiction
Locus Standi
CBoth A & B
DNone of the Above
Why B. Locus standi refers to the legal capacity to bring a case before a court, and public interest litigation relaxes this requirement by allowing any public-spirited individual to file a petition on behalf of those who are unable to approach the court themselves, under the constitutional framework.
Question 12Public Interest Litigation
Which of the following is not a case of Public Interest Litigation:
Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala AIR 1973 SC 1461
BVincent Narayan v. Union of India, AIR 1988 SC 889
CUnion of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms, AIR 2002 SC 2112
DVincent Panikurlangara v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 990.
Why A. The case establishes the basic structure doctrine, which limits Parliament's power to amend the Constitution, and is not a Public Interest Litigation as it was filed by an individual to protect his property rights, not for public benefit.
Question 13Professional Ethics & Contempt
Which of the following can be done by a Senior Advocate in accordance with the Rules of Bar Council of India:
Make concessions on behalf of client on instructions from junior advocate.
BAccept instructions to draft a pleading
CAccept brief directly from a client
DNone of the Above
Why A. A Senior Advocate must act only on the instructions of the client and cannot make concessions on behalf of the client unless explicitly directed to do so by the client or their authorized representative; a junior advocate acting under the client's authority may provide such instructions, but the Senior Advocate remains bound to follow them only as per the client's directive.
Question 14Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Which one of the following is true about Latin Maxim 'Ubi Jus Ibi remedium'?
Where there is right, there is remedy.
BWhere there is remedy, there is right.
CBoth A & B
DNone of the Above
Why A. The Latin maxim 'Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium' means that where a legal right exists, the law provides a remedy to enforce it; this principle ensures that no right is meaningless without a corresponding means of redress.
Question 15Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
The Latin word 'Injuria Sine Damnum' Literally means:
Infringement of legal right without damages.
BDamages without Infringement of legal right.
CBoth A & B
DAll of the above
Why A. Injuria sine damnum means the violation of a legal right without any actual loss or damage, and the law recognizes such an infringement as actionable even if no tangible harm has occurred.
Question 16Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
The Provision relating to claims Tribunal is given under ________ of Motor Vehicles Act:
Section 165-175
BSection 175-180
CSection 170-175
DSection 171-177
Why A. Section 165-175 of the Motor Vehicles Act provides for the establishment and functioning of Claims Tribunals to adjudicate claims arising from motor vehicle accidents.
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Question 17Constitutional Law
'Rule of Law' means
AEquality before the Law
BSupremacy of the Law
CPredominance of legal spirit
All of the above
Why D. The Rule of Law means that no one is above the law, all persons are subject to the same legal standards, and government authority is exercised only in accordance with established legal principles, ensuring equality, fairness, and protection of rights under the Constitution.
Question 18Constitutional Law
The purpose of writ of 'Quo warranto' is?
ATo compel public authority to perform duty
BTo restraint public authority to do illegal act
To oust illegal occupant of a public post
DAll of the above
Why C. The writ of quo warranto is issued under Article 226 of the Constitution of India to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office and to oust an illegal occupant of such a post.
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Question 19Constitutional Law
Writ of Certiorari can be issued against
Judicial and Quasi-Judicial bodies
BQuasi Judicial and Administrative bodies
CAdministrative Bodies only
DNone of the above
Why A. The writ of Certiorari can be issued against Judicial and Quasi-Judicial bodies under Article 32 and Article 226 of the Constitution of India, as these bodies exercise public functions and their decisions are subject to review for excess of jurisdiction or violation of natural justice.
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Question 20Constitutional Law
Supreme Court of India held that it is permanent obligation of every member of medical profession either government or private to give medical aid to every injured person brought for treatment immediately without waiting for procedural formalities in the case of-
ACommon Cause V/s Union of India (1996) 1 SC 753
BPeoples Union of India, AIR 1983 SC 339
Parmanand Katara V/s Union of India ,AIR 1989 SC 2039
DLakshmi Kant Pandey V/s Union of India (1984) 25 SC 244
Why C. Under Article 21 of the Constitution of India, the right to life includes the right to receive immediate medical aid, and it is a permanent obligation on every member of the medical profession, whether government or private, to provide such aid without delay or procedural formalities.
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Question 21Administrative Law
The Supreme Court of India has issued the direction to make the CBI independent agency so that it can function more effectively and investigate Crimes and Corruptions at high places in public life in the Case of-
AUnion of India V/s Association For democratic reforms, AIR 2002 SC 2112
BBangalore medical Trust V/s B.S Muddappa (1991) 45 SC 54
CVincent Panikurlangra V/s Union of India (1987) 2 SC 165
DVincent Narayan V/s Union of India, AIR 1998 SC 889
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Question 22Evidence (IEA / BSA)
One of the following statements is not true, which one is that:
AA confession by one co accused implicating other co accused would be proved.
BA confession to a police-officer cannot be proved.
A confession by a person in the custody of a police officer to any person in the presence of magistrate can be proved.
DIf the confession of a person leads to recovery of a thing it can be proved.
Why C. Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act excludes confessions made to police officers, but a confession made in the presence of a magistrate by a person in police custody is admissible because it is not made to a police officer and is recorded under judicial supervision.
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Question 23Evidence (IEA / BSA)
The Kashmira Singh Vs State of MP is a leading case on:
ADying declaration
BAdmission
CConfession to police officer
Confession of a co-accused
Why D. Section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that a confession made by one co-accused may be taken into consideration against other accused persons jointly tried, subject to the court being satisfied of its reliability and voluntariness.
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Question 24Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Which of the following fact is not relevant in civil and criminal cases under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act
AMotive
Attempt
CConduct
DPreparation
Why B. Under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, any fact which shows or constitutes a motive, preparation, or attempt is relevant; but the mere intention without any overt act, such as an attempt, is not sufficient to establish relevance unless it forms part of the conduct connected with the fact in issue.
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Question 25ADR incl. Arbitration
BATNA Stands for:
ABilateral agreement to negotiation and arbitration
Best alternative to a negotiated agreement
CBilateral Trade negotiated agreement
DNone of the above
Why B. BATNA stands for Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement, which is a legal principle used to evaluate the most advantageous option available if negotiations fail, helping parties make informed decisions during dispute resolution.
Question 26ADR incl. Arbitration
Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with
Interim measures by the court
BDiscretionary powers of the court
CBoth A & B
DNone of the above
Why A. Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 empowers the court to grant interim measures to preserve the subject matter of the dispute, protect assets, or ensure the effectiveness of the eventual award, even before the arbitral tribunal is constituted.
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Question 27Law related to Taxation
For the first time in India Income Tax was introduced by Sir James Wilson in the year:
A1886
B1868
1860
DNone of the Above
Why C. Income Tax was first introduced in India in 1860 by Sir James Wilson as a temporary measure to compensate for financial losses following the Revolt of 1857, marking the beginning of direct taxation in the country.
Question 28Law related to Taxation
In which case Justice J.C. Shah of S.C. observed "Since by the exercise of the power a serious invasion is made upon the rights, privacy and freedom of the tax payer, the power must be exercised strictly in accordance with law and only for the purpose for which law authorises it to be excercised"
ADirector of Inspection Vs Pooranmal
BITO Vs Seth Brothers
CP.R. Metrani Vs CIT
DNone of the above
Question 29Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which of the following statements are true? i. Minor's contract can be ratified on attaining majority. ii. Minor's contact be ratified on attaining majority iii. Minor's contract can be ratified jointly by both the parties to the contract. iv. Minor is not liable under minor's contract
A(i) and (iii)
B(ii) and (iv)
C(i) and (ii)
D(ii) and (iii)
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Question 30Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which one of the following sections of CrPC deals with irregularities which vitiate proceeding?
ASection 460
Section 461
CSection 462
DSection 468
Why B. Section 461 of the CrPC provides that any irregularity in the proceedings which affects the merits of the case or prejudices the rights of the accused shall vitiate the proceeding, unless the court is satisfied that such irregularity did not cause a failure of justice.
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Question 31Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following is not an essential element of a decree:
AConclusive determination of the rights of the parties.
BFormal expression of adjudication.
An adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order.
DThe adjudication must have been given in a suit before the court.
Why C. A decree under Section 2(2) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, is a formal expression of an adjudication that conclusively determines the rights of the parties with regard to all or any of the matters in controversy, and from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order.
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Question 32Professional Ethics & Contempt
Which of the following is not a duty of an Advocate to Court:
To not commit breach of section 126 of Evidence Act.
BTo not to appear on behalf of any organisation 'of whose Executive Committee, he is a member.
CTo not appear before a Court, Tribunal or Authority in which his near relation is a member.
DTo conduct himself with dignity and self-respect during presentation of a case before a Court and otherwise acting before a Court.
Why A. An advocate must not disclose communications made in confidence by a client during professional engagement, as this is protected under Section 126 of the Evidence Act, and violating this would breach the duty of confidentiality owed to the client, which is a core obligation under the Bar Council of India Rules.
Question 33Professional Ethics & Contempt
Which of the following rules of Chapter II of Part VI of the Bar Council Rules deal with the duty of an Advocate in respect of any moneys received by him from Client:
Rule 25
BRule 33
CRule 24
DNone of the Above
Why A. Rule 25 of Chapter II of Part VI of the Bar Council of India Rules mandates that an advocate shall not mix the client's money with his own and shall keep it in a separate bank account, ensuring fiduciary integrity in handling client funds under Section 25.
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Question 34Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Under which of the following sections of CrPC provisions relating to police report is given?
Section 173 (2) (i)
BSection 177
CSection 174 (2) (i)
DSection 175
Why A. Section 173(2)(i) of the CrPC mandates that the police report must contain the name of the person accused, the facts of the case, and the opinion of the police officer as to whether any offence has been committed and by whom, forming the core of the police report under the CrPC.
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Question 35Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which one of the following provisions of CrPC deals with anticipatory bail?
ASection 437
Section 438
CSection 439
DNone of the above
Why B. Section 438 of the CrPC provides for anticipatory bail, allowing a person who apprehends arrest for a non-bailable offence to apply to the High Court or Sessions Court for protection from arrest, subject to conditions imposed by the court.
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Question 36Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
The provision relating to cancellation of bond and bail bond is given under:
Section 446-A
BSection 446
CSection 447
DSection 450
Why A. Section 446-A of the BNSS provides the legal principle for the cancellation of bond and bail bond when a person fails to appear before the court as required, allowing the court to forfeit the bond and take appropriate action against the surety.
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Question 37Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
The provisions relating to dowry is given under:
Section 304-B of the I.P.C
BSection 304-A of the I.P.C
CSection 304 of the I.P.C
DSection 305-B of the I.P.C
Why A. Section 304-B of the Indian Penal Code specifically defines and penalizes dowry death, which occurs when a woman dies under abnormal circumstances within seven years of marriage and it is shown that she was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or his relatives in connection with a demand for dowry.
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Question 38Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Which of the following section is designed to curb infanticide:
ASection 317 of the I.P.C
BSection 313 of the I.P.C
CSection 318 of the I.P.C
Section 315 of the I.P.C
Why D. Section 315 of the Indian Penal Code criminalizes the act of doing any act with the intent to prevent the birth of a child, or killing a child immediately after birth, with the intent to conceal the birth, thereby directly addressing infanticide.
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Question 39Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which order has been specially enacted to protect the interest of Minors and Unsound Mind:
AOrder 31
Order 32
COrder 33
DOrder 34
Why B. Order 32 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, specifically provides for the protection of the interests of minors and persons of unsound mind by prescribing the procedure for their representation in suits, including the appointment of next friends and guardians ad litem.
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Question 40Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which order of the CPC lays down general rules governing pleadings in a court?
Order 6
BOrder 7
COrder 8
DOrder 9
Why A. Order 6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, lays down the general rules governing pleadings, including the form, content, and amendment of plaints and written statements.
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Question 41Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Second appeal under section 100 is applicable:
ASubstantial question of law as formulated by the High Court.
BSubstantial question of law as not formulated by the High Court.
CAn appellate decree passed Ex Parte.
DAll of the above
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Question 42Intellectual Property Law
Which of the following is an infringement of a Registered Trade mark:
AUse of a mark identical to the Trade mark in relation to goods without authorisation.
BAdvertising of that Trade mark such that the advertisement is against the reputation of the Trade Mark.
CUse of that Trade mark as a business name without authorisation.
All of the above.
Why D. Under Section 29 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, infringement occurs when a person uses a mark identical or deceptively similar to a registered trademark in relation to goods or services for which the mark is registered, and such use is likely to cause confusion or deception among the public, including through dilution or unfair advantage.
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Question 43Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
A person undergoing life imprisonment, if attempts to commit murder and hurt is caused thereby, he may be punished with:
ALife Imprisonment
BDeath
CImprisonment
All of the above
Why D. Under Section 114 of the BNS, a person undergoing life imprisonment who commits murder or causes hurt while in custody may be punished with death, life imprisonment, or rigorous imprisonment for life, making all listed options legally valid.
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Question 44Constitutional Law
Residuary Powers in India may be exercised by
Parliament
BState Legislatures
CPresident
DBoth A & B
Why A. Under Article 248 of the Constitution of India, residuary powers of legislation are vested exclusively in Parliament, enabling it to make laws on any matter not enumerated in the State List or the Concurrent List.
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Question 45Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
The Punishments to which offenders are liable under the provision of I.P.C are:
ADeath and imprisonment for life
BRigorous imprisonment and simple imprisonment
CForfeiture of property and fine
All of the above
Why D. The Indian Penal Code provides for a comprehensive range of punishments including imprisonment, fines, forfeiture of property, and death, all of which are legally recognized and applicable depending on the nature and gravity of the offense committed.
Question 46Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
M' Naghten Rules form the basis of the law of:
AInfancy
Insanity
CIgnorance of fact
DMistake
Why B. Section 86 of the BNS provides that an act is not an offence if the person, at the time of doing it, was incapable of knowing the nature of the act or that it was wrong or contrary to law due to unsoundness of mind, which is the legal principle of insanity.
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Question 47Cyber Law
The authentication to be affected by the use of asymmetric crypto system and hash function is known as:
APublic key
BPrivate key
Digital Signature
DElectronic Governance
Why C. Under Section 3 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, a digital signature is defined as the authentication of an electronic record by means of an asymmetric cryptosystem and a hash function, ensuring the integrity and origin of the record.
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Question 48Cyber Law
Punishment for Cyber Terrorism under Section 66F shall be punishable:
AWith Imprisonment which may extend to three year or with fine not exceeding two lakh rupees or with both.
BWith imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine.
With imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life.
DWith imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years and shall also be liable to fine.
Why C. Under Section 66F of the Information Technology Act, cyber terrorism is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life, as it involves acts intended to threaten the unity, integrity, security, or sovereignty of India through electronic means.
Question 49Labour & Industrial Law
Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 define "Industry" means any i. Business trade, undertaking ii. Manufacture or calling of employers iii. Included any calling, service, employment, handicraft iv. Industrial occupation of workmen
A(i) and (ii)
B(i), (ii) and (iii)
C(iii)and (iv)
All of the above
Why D. Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 defines "industry" broadly to include any business, trade, undertaking, manufacture, or calling of employers, and also encompasses any calling, service, employment, handicraft, or industrial occupation involving workmen — making all listed options part of the statutory definition.
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Question 50Family Law
Which of the following provisions of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 incorporates the fault theory of divorce?
ASection 13(1)
BSection 11
CSection 13B
DSection 13(2)
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Question 51Family Law
Under the Hindu Maintenance and Adoption Act, 1956, which of the both following circumstances can a dependent enforce his right to maintenance against a transferee of an estate out of which he has a right to receive maintenance:
AOnly when the Transferee has notice of such right.
BOnly when the transfer is gratuitous.
Both A & B
DNone of the above.
Why C. Under Section 22 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a dependent’s right to maintenance is a charge on the property, and this right binds any transferee of the estate, whether the transfer is made with or without notice, as long as the dependent’s claim existed at the time of transfer.
Question 52Public Interest Litigation
Which of the following Courts/ Tribunals cannot entertain a Public Interest Litigation:
ASupreme Court
BHigh Court
Central Administrative Tribunal
DNone of the Above
Why C. The Central Administrative Tribunal is established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, and its jurisdiction is limited to service matters of public servants; it cannot entertain Public Interest Litigation as only High Courts under Article 226 and the Supreme Court under Article 32 have the constitutional authority to issue writs for public interest.
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Question 53Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
'A' places men with firearms at the outlets of a building and tells 'Z' that they will fire at 'Z' if 'Z' attempts to leave the building 'A' is:
AWrong fully restrains Z
BWrong fully confine Z
Both A & B
DNone of the above
Why C. Under Section 301 of the BNS, when a person confines another by placing armed individuals at exits with threats of violence to prevent escape, it constitutes wrongful confinement as the victim is deprived of liberty by fear of immediate harm.
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Question 54Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
'A' incites a dog to spring upon 'Z', without Zs' consent. If 'A' intends to cause injury, fear or annoyance to 'Z':
A'A' uses force to 'Z'
B'A' assaulted 'Z'
'A' uses criminal force to 'Z'
DNone of the above
Why C. Under Section 134 of the BNS, the use of criminal force includes causing any animal to act in a manner that applies force to another person, even if the force is not directly applied by the accused; thus, inciting a dog to spring upon 'Z' with intent to cause injury, fear or annoyance constitutes criminal force.
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Question 55Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
'A' causes cattle to enter upon the field belonging to 'Z', intending to cause and knowing that he is likely to cause damage to 'Z's' crop. 'A' has committed:
Mischief
BCriminal trespassing
CCriminal breach of trust
DExtortion
Why A. Under Section 366 of the BNS, mischief is committed when a person intentionally causes damage to property, or renders it useless, with wrongful intent; here, 'A' knowingly and intentionally caused damage to 'Z's' crop by driving cattle onto the field, satisfying the legal definition of mischief.
Question 56Constitutional Law
From which of the following countries, the Constitution of India has borrowed the 'Power of Judicial Review'?
ACanada
BUnited Kingdom
USA
DIreland
Why C. The Constitution of India has borrowed the power of judicial review from the United States of America, as it empowers the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions, a principle established by the U.S. constitutional framework.
Question 57Constitutional Law
Enforcement of which of the following articles of the Constitution of India cannot be suspended even during the proclamation of emergency?
A14 & 19
20& 21
C23 &24
D21 & 22
Why B. Articles 20 and 21 of the Constitution of India cannot be suspended even during an emergency, as explicitly provided under Section 359.
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Question 58Professional Ethics & Contempt
Which of the following provisions of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the power of Bar Council of India to withdraw to itself, any proceedings for disciplinary action pending before any State Bar Council:
ASection 35
BSection 37
Section 36(2)
DNone of the Above
Why C. Section 36(2) of the Advocates Act, 1961 empowers the Bar Council of India to withdraw any proceeding for disciplinary action pending before a State Bar Council and to dispose of it itself, ensuring uniformity and oversight in the discipline of advocates across the country.
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Question 59Company Law
Which Court or Authority has the power to punish any person for contempt of the National Company Law Tribunal:
ASupreme Court
BHigh Court
CNational Company Law Appellate Tribunal
National Company Law Tribunal
Why D. Under Section 425 of the Companies Act, 2013, the National Company Law Tribunal has the same powers as a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, including the power to punish for contempt.
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Question 60Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which of the following is not a vested interest:
A'A' stipulates that title in a property shall pass to 'C' on his death.
B'A' stipulates that title in a property shall pass to 'C' on the death of 'B'
'A' stipulates that title in a property shall pass to 'C' if he marries 'B'
D'A' stipulates that title in a property shall pass to 'C' after ten years.
Why C. Under Section 19 of the Transfer of Property Act, a vested interest is created when an interest in property is transferred to a person without a condition precedent; here, the condition that 'C' must marry 'B' makes the interest contingent, not vested.
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Question 61Intellectual Property Law
Which of the following is wrong in respect of the law of Copyright:
ACopyright protects only the expression and not idea.
BThere is no copyright in respect of a fact.
There is no copyright in a government work
DCopyright doesn't require registration.
Why C. Under Section 17 of the Copyright Act, 1957, the Government is the first owner of copyright in any work made by it, and no copyright subsists in a government work as defined under the Act, meaning it is not protected by copyright and is freely usable by the public.
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Question 62Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Under the Indian Evidence Act, the character of a person is not relevant in which of the following cases
APrevious good character of an accused in criminal case
BPrevious bad character in reply to good character in criminal case.
Character to prove conduct imputed in civil case
DCharacter affected the amount of damage is civil case
Why C. Under Section 52 of the Indian Evidence Act, the character of a person is not relevant to prove the conduct of that person in a civil case, as character evidence is generally inadmissible to show that a person acted in accordance with that character in civil proceedings.
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Question 63Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Which one of the following is primary evidence
Document produced for the inspection of the court
BCopies made from original
CCertified copies of the document
DPhotostat copies of a document
Why A. Primary evidence means the original document produced for the inspection of the court, as defined under Section 62 of the Indian Evidence Act.
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Question 64Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 come into effect on
A24th August 1986
15th April 1986
C24th May 1986
D24th December 1986
Why B. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 came into effect on 15th April 1986, as this is the date notified by the Central Government for its enforcement, marking the formal commencement of the Act's provisions for consumer redressal.
Question 65Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Which one of the following sections of Consumer Protection Act, 1986 defines the term 'Consumer'?
ASection 2(1)(a)
BSection 2(1)(b)
CSection 2(1)(c)
Section 2(1)(d)
Why D. Section 2(1)(d) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 defines the term 'Consumer' as a person who buys any goods or hires or avails of any services for a consideration, whether paid or promised, or under a system of deferred payment, and includes any user of such goods or services with the approval of the buyer.
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Question 66Law related to Taxation
The principle of Law of Taxation that "No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law". It is contained under
Article 265 of the constitution
BArticle 300 of the constitution
CArticle 19(1)(g) of the constitution
DArticle 285 of the constitution
Why A. Article 265 of the Constitution of India provides that no tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law, establishing the fundamental principle that taxation requires explicit legal authorization.
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Question 67Law related to Taxation
Under which section of Income Tax Act " Income of other persons are included in assessee's total income"
ASections 56-58
BSections 139-147
CSection 246-262
Section 60-65
Why D. Section 60 to 65 of the Income Tax Act provides that the income of certain other persons may be included in the total income of the assessee, based on specific relationships or control, to prevent avoidance of tax through transfer of income without transfer of asset.
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Question 68Constitutional Law
Under which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution Parliament is empowered to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in National Interest?
Article 249
BArticle 250
CArticle 252
DArticle 253
Why A. Article 249 empowers Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority declaring that it is necessary in the national interest.
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Question 69Constitutional Law
In which of the following cases the court has laid down that 'Right to life' does not include 'Right to die'?
AState Vs Sanjay Kr. Bhatia
Smt. Gian Kaur Vs State of Punjab
CR Vs Holiday
DP. Rathinam Vs UOI
Why B. The court held that the Right to Life under Article 21 of the Constitution does not include the Right to die, as life is a fundamental value that cannot be extinguished by personal choice, and suicide or assisted suicide is not a protected aspect of personal liberty.
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Question 70Constitutional Law
The question whether a bill is a money bill or not is decided by?
AThe Prime Minister
BThe Finance Minister
CThe President
The Speaker, Lok Sabha
Why D. Under Article 110 of the Constitution of India, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the sole and final authority to decide whether a bill is a money bill or not, and such a decision is conclusive for all purposes.
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Question 71Constitutional Law
Decision under 10th Schedule is taken by?
APresident
BChief Justice of India
CPrime Minister
Presiding officers of Houses
Why D. Under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the presiding officers of Houses are vested with the authority to decide on questions of disqualification arising from defection, as they are designated as the adjudicating authorities for such matters.
Question 72ADR incl. Arbitration
In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that an International Commercial Arbitration is one which has its juridical or legal seat of arbitration outside India:
Bhatia International v. Buk Trading S.A. (2002) 4 SCC 105.
BBharat Aluminium Company v. Kaiser Aluminium Technical Services Inc. (2012) 9 SCC 552.
CBooz Allen and Hamilton Inc. v. SBI Home Finance Limited (2011) 5 SCC 532.
DVimal Kishore Shah v. Jayesh Dinesh Shah (2016) 8 SCC 788.
Why A. The case established that for an arbitration to be classified as international commercial arbitration under Section 2(2) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the legal seat of arbitration must be outside India, regardless of where the parties are located or where the dispute arises.
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Question 73Family Law
Which of the following provisions of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 lays down for the escheat:
ASection 25
BSection 26
CSection 27
Section 29
Why D. Section 29 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 provides that if a Hindu dies intestate and leaves no heir qualified to succeed to his property, the property shall escheat to the Government.
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Question 74ADR incl. Arbitration
Which one is a Foreign Award-
AAn award in a arbitration where at least one party in non-Indian
An award passed in a foreign seated arbitration
CAn award passed in a arbitration where both the parties are non-Indian
DNone of the above
Why B. An award passed in a foreign seated arbitration is a Foreign Award under Section 44 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, because it is made in a country notified as a reciprocating territory under the Act, and the arbitration proceedings took place outside India.
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Question 75Family Law
If a man marries a girl who is within his prohibited relationship and his custom does not permit such marriage, such a man would be punished under:
ASection 17 of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955
BSection 18 (a) of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955
Section 18(b) of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955
DNo punishment for such marriages
Why C. Section 18(b) of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 punishes a person who marries in contravention of the prohibitions specified in Section 5(i), including marriages within a prohibited relationship where the custom does not permit such union.
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Question 76Family Law
Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 provides that a child from a void marriage would be legitimate?
ASection 11
BSection 13 (a)
CSection 12
Section 16
Why D. Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 provides that children born of a void marriage shall be legitimate, regardless of whether the marriage is later declared void, ensuring their rights to property and status under the law.
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Question 77Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Under which one of the following section of CrPC, police officer is under obligation to inform the accused ground of right to bail.
ASection 49
Section 50
CSection 57
DSection 60
Why B. Section 50 of the CrPC mandates that every police officer arresting a person without a warrant must immediately inform them of the grounds of arrest and, if the offence is bailable, of their right to be released on bail.
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Question 78Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Under what circumstance court can issue an order for the attachment of property of person absconding;
AWhere the person to whom proclamation is issued is about to dispose of the whole of his property
BWhere the person to whom proclamation is issued is about to dispose of any part of his property
CWhere the person to whom proclamation is issued is about to remove the whole or any part of his property from the local jurisdiction of the court
All of the above
Why D. Under Section 84 of the BNSS, a court may issue an order for the attachment of property of a person absconding to ensure the person's appearance, to prevent disposal of property, or to secure payment of a fine or compensation, and all these circumstances are valid grounds under the provision.
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Question 79Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Inherent Power under section 482 CrPC can be exercised by.
AThe Supreme Court
BThe Court of Session
The High Court
DAll of the above
Why C. The High Court has inherent power under Section 482 of the CrPC to make such orders as may be necessary to give effect to any order under the Code or to prevent abuse of the process of any court or otherwise to secure the ends of justice.
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Question 80Evidence (IEA / BSA)
If it is proved that a man has not been heard of for ____by those who would naturally have heard of him if he were alive, the presumption under section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act is that he is dead:
A5 year
7 year
C15 year
D20 year
Why B. Under Section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act, if a person has not been heard of for seven years by those who would naturally have heard of him if he were alive, the court may presume that he is dead.
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Question 81Evidence (IEA / BSA)
A dumb witness given his evidence in writing in the open court, such evidence would be treated as
Oral evidence
BDocumentary evidence
CSecondary evidence
DPrimary evidence
Why A. Under Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, oral evidence means statements made by witnesses before the court in relation to matters of fact under inquiry; even if a witness is dumb, evidence given in writing in open court, when properly authenticated and taken as a substitute for spoken words, is treated as oral evidence because it is delivered in the presence of the court and subject to cross-examination.
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Question 82Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Which of the following is not a public document?
ABank Books
BPost-Mortem Report
CJudgement of the High Court
DRegistered Sale Deed
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Question 83Land Acquisition Act
The Land Acquisition Act, 1894 came into force on-
AFirst Day of January, 1894.
BFirst Day of February, 1894.
First Day of March, 1894.
DFirst Day of April, 1894.
Why C. The Land Acquisition Act, 1894 came into force on the first day of March, 1894, as explicitly provided by its commencement clause, which fixes the date of enforcement without requiring any additional notification or proclamation.
Question 84Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which of the following sentences can the Court of Session pass:
ADeath Sentence.
BRigorous Imprisonment.
CSimple Imprisonment.
Any sentence authorised by law but Death Sentence must be confirmed by the High Court.
Why D. Under Section 282 of the BNSS, the Court of Session may pass any sentence authorised by law, but a sentence of death must be confirmed by the High Court before it can be executed.
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Question 85Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following is not a requirement for a foreign judgment to be conclusive:
AIt must be given on merits of the case.
BIt must be pronounced by a Court of competent jurisdiction.
CIt was not obtained by fraud.
It is by a court in an enemy country.
Why D. A foreign judgment is not conclusive if it is rendered by a court in an enemy country, as Section 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, excludes such judgments from recognition because they lack the necessary legal authority and reciprocity under Indian law.
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Question 86Labour & Industrial Law
Ensuring the safety, health and welfare of the employees is the primary purpose of the:
APayment of wages Act, 1936
BIndustrial Dispute Act, 1947
Factories Act, 1948
DEqual Remuneration Act, 1976
Why C. The Factories Act, 1948 is the primary legislation in India that mandates the safety, health and welfare of workers employed in factories, establishing comprehensive obligations for employers to provide safe working conditions, adequate facilities, and protective measures.
Question 87Labour & Industrial Law
In which case Supreme Court held that whether teachers are not workmen?
ADharangadhara Chemical work Ltd. V/s State of Saurashtra, AIR 1957 Section 264.
BUniversity of Delhi V/s Ram Nath, AIR 1963 Section 1873
CJ.K Cotton Spinning and Weaving Mills Co. Ltd. V/s L.T AIR 1964 Section 737
Sunderambal V/s Government of Goa, AIR (1988) Section 1700..
Why D. The Supreme Court held that teachers are not workmen under Section 2(s) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, because their primary role involves intellectual and professional duties rather than manual, clerical, or skilled labor typically contemplated by the definition of workman.
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Question 88Labour & Industrial Law
Under Section 2 (cc) of the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 'Closure' means:
The permanent closing down of a place of employment or part thereof.
BThe partly closing down of a place of employment or part thereof.
CThe temporary closing down of a place of employment or part thereof.
DThe short-term closing down of a place of employment or part of thereof.
Why A. Under Section 2(cc) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, 'Closure' is legally defined as the permanent closing down of a place of employment or part thereof, distinguishing it from temporary shutdowns or operational pauses.
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Question 89Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
A reference can be made during the pendency of the case:
The Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the latter's opinion on a question of law.
BThe Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the latter's opinion on a question of evidence.
CThe Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the latter's opinion on a question of fact.
DThe Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the latter's opinion on a question of court procedure.
Why A. Under Section 113 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a Subordinate Court may refer a question of law to the High Court for its opinion when it is of the opinion that the case involves a substantial question of law which it is unable to decide.
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Question 90Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
A person can apply for review of judgment when
AHe is aggrieved by a decree/order from which an appeal is allowed, but no appeal has been preferred.
BHe is aggrieved by a decree/order from which no appeal is allowed.
CHe is aggrieved by a decision on a reference from a Court of small causes.
All of the above.
Why D. Section 114 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, permits a review of judgment when there is a mistake or error apparent on the face of the record, or when new and important evidence has emerged, or for any other sufficient reason, and all these grounds are valid under the provision.
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Question 91Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
In which of the following cases, the remedy of revision is not available?
ACases in which first appeal lies.
BCases in which second appeal lies.
CInterlocutory orders.
All of the above.
Why D. Under Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, revision is not available where the order is appealable, where the error is merely procedural without substantial injustice, or where the jurisdictional defect is not apparent on the face of the record — hence, all listed scenarios exclude revision.
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Question 92Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Effect of 'not negotiable' crossing is mentioned under
ASection 125
Section 130
CSection 131
DSection 128
Why B. Section 130 of the Negotiable Instruments Act provides that a crossing with the words "not negotiable" does not prevent the holder from transferring the instrument, but the transferee cannot acquire a better title than the transferor.
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Question 93Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Section 16 of negotiable instrument defines
ARestrictive endorsement
BConditional endorsement
Indorsement "in full" and Indorsement "in blank"
DAll of the above
Why C. Section 16 of the Negotiable Instruments Act defines indorsement as the signing of a negotiable instrument by the holder for the purpose of transferring it, and it distinguishes between indorsement in full, where the name of the transferee is specified, and indorsement in blank, where only the indorser's signature appears without naming a transferee.
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Question 94Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
The liability under Section 138 of the negotiable instruments act 1881 is
Strict liability
BVicarious liability
CBoth 'A and B'
DNone of the above
Why A. The liability under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is strict liability because the offence is established merely by the dishonour of a cheque for insufficiency of funds, without requiring proof of criminal intent or mens rea.
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Question 95Land Acquisition Act
The objectives of Land Acquisition Act, 1894 are-
AAn Act to amend the law for the acquisition of land for public purposes and for industry.
BAn Act to amend the law for the purchase of land for public purpose and for business.
CAn Act to amend the law for the possessions of land for public purpose and for manufacturing.
An Act to amend the law for the Acquisition of land for public purposes and for Companies.
Why D. The Land Acquisition Act, 1894 was enacted to provide a legal framework for the compulsory acquisition of land for public purposes and for companies, ensuring that such acquisitions are carried out in a structured and regulated manner under state authority.
Question 96Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Under which one of the following section of CrPC, police officer can arrest an accused without warrant?
ASection 40
Section 41
CSection 42
DSection 43
Why B. Section 41 of the CrPC authorizes a police officer to arrest a person without a warrant when they have reasonable grounds to believe the person has committed a cognizable offence.
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Question 97Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which one of the following courts, under criminal procedure code, 1973 can try a murder case.
AJudicial Magistrate 1st class
BChief Judicial Magistrate
Court of Session
DNone of the above
Why C. Under Section 26 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the Court of Session is the court empowered to try murder cases, as it has exclusive jurisdiction over offenses punishable with death, life imprisonment, or rigorous imprisonment for seven years or more.
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Question 98Company Law
It deals with the Internal Management and Affairs of company:
AProspectus
Article of Association
CMemorandum of Association.
DDebenture
Why B. The Article of Association, as defined under Section 2(5) of the Companies Act, is the document that outlines the rules and regulations governing the internal management and affairs of a company, including the rights, duties, and powers of its members and directors.
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Question 99Environmental Law
Public Liability Insurance Act was enacted in
1991
B1993
C1995
D1997
Why A. The Public Liability Insurance Act was enacted in 1991 to provide immediate relief to persons affected by accidents occurring while handling hazardous substances, establishing a no-fault liability regime for environmental harm.
Question 100Environmental Law
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is mandatory under
AIndian Forest Act
BAir Act
CWildlife Protection Act
Environment Protection Act
Why D. Under Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act, the Central Government has the power to take measures to protect and improve the environment, including prescribing standards and procedures such as mandatory Environmental Impact Assessment for certain projects.
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