All 95 questions of AIBE-13 (2018) Set A with the correct answer, an original explanation, and the exact bare-act provision a tap away. No negative marking. The qualifying cutoff is 45 of 100 for General and OBC, 40 of 100 for SC, ST and PwD.
AIBE 13 (XXI) Set A Answer Key 2018 with Solutions
Answer key at a glance
Question 1Constitutional Law
Restrictions may not be imposed on freedoms provided under Article 19(1)(a) on this ground
ADefamation
BPublic Order
Sedition
DSecurity of the state
Why C. Sedition is not a ground on which restrictions may be imposed on the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a), as the Constitution permits restrictions only on the specific grounds listed in Article 19(2), and sedition is not among them.
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Question 2Constitutional Law
Right guaranteed to citizen only is
AArticle 21
BArticle 20
Article 19 (1) (a)
DArticle 25
Why C. Article 19(1)(a) guarantees the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression, which is available only to citizens of India and not to non-citizens, as explicitly provided in the Constitution.
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Question 3Constitutional Law
President can be removed on the ground of?
AProved Misbehavior
BIncapacity
Violation of Constitution
DAll the above
Why C. The President of India can be removed only on the ground of violation of the Constitution, as provided under Article 61 of the Constitution of India, which lays down the procedure for impeachment on this specific ground.
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Question 4Professional Ethics & Contempt
The designation 'Senior Advocates' is provided under
Section 16, Advocates Act 1961
BSection 26, Advocates Act 1961
CSection 6, Advocates Act 1961
DSection 15, Advocates Act 1961
Why A. The designation of Senior Advocate is conferred under Section 16 of the Advocates Act, 1961, which empowers the High Court to designate an advocate as a Senior Advocate based on ability, standing at the bar, or special knowledge or experience in law.
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Question 5Professional Ethics & Contempt
Right to pre-audience is provided by
ASection 33 of Advocates Act 1961
Section 23 of Advocates Act 1961
CSection 16 of Advocates Act 1961
DSection 36 of Advocates Act 1961
Why B. Section 23 of the Advocates Act 1961 provides for the right of pre-audience to advocates enrolled under the Act, granting them the exclusive right to appear and plead in any court or before any authority in India.
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Question 6Constitutional Law
The 'Contempt of Court' belongs to
Entry 77 of Union list and entry 14 of State list in the VIIth schedule of Constitution of India.
BEntry 70 of union list and entry 40 of state list
CEntry 67 of Union list and entry 13 of State list
DNone of these
Why A. Contempt of Court is a subject under Entry 77 of the Union List and Entry 14 of the State List in Schedule VII of the Constitution of India, which allocates legislative power between the Union and the States, with the Union having exclusive authority over contempt of court in relation to the Supreme Court and High Courts.
Question 7Public Interest Litigation
Who was the Chief justice of India when the Concept of PIL was introduced to Indian Judicial system
AM. Hidayataullah
BA.M. Ahmadi
CA.SAnand
P.N. Bhagwati
Why D. The Chief Justice of India who introduced the concept of Public Interest Litigation was P.N. Bhagwati, as he expanded judicial access by allowing public-spirited individuals to file petitions on behalf of marginalized groups unable to approach the court themselves, thereby transforming the judiciary's role in enforcing fundamental rights.
Question 8Public Interest Litigation
The Supreme Court of India issued a number of direction for the prevention of Woman in Various forms of prostitution and to rehabilitate their Children Through various welfare measures an so as to provide them with dignity of person means of livelihood and socio-economic development in the case of
AVishaka Vs State of Rajasthan , AIR 1997 Section 3011
Gaurav Jain Vs Union of India, AID 1997 Section 3021
CDelhi Domestic Working women's Forum Vs Union of India (1998) 1 Section 14
DSheela Barse Vs Union of India (1986) 35 Section 596
Why B. The Supreme Court held that the dignity of persons involved in prostitution and their children must be protected under the Constitution, and directed comprehensive welfare measures to ensure their rehabilitation, livelihood, and socio-economic development, affirming the state's duty to uphold fundamental rights even in vulnerable contexts.
Question 9Family Law
"Hadees" is one of the sources of Muslim law it comprises
AVery words of god
Words and actions of the prophet
CUnanimous decision of jurists
DAnalogical decisions
Why B. Hadees comprises the words and actions of the Prophet, which serve as a primary source of Muslim Personal Law under the Shariat, guiding legal principles where the Quran is silent.
Question 10Intellectual Property Law
Intellectual Property appellate Board is established under which Act
AThe Copyright Act, 1957
BThe Patent Act, 1970
The Trademark Act, 1999
DThe Designs Act, 2000
Why C. The Intellectual Property Appellate Board is established under Section 83 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, which provides for the constitution of a tribunal to hear appeals against orders of the Registrar of Trademarks.
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Question 11ADR incl. Arbitration
That is the maximum duration within which fast track arbitration must b completed
6 Month
B12 Month
C18 Month
D24 Month
Why A. Under Section 29B of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, fast track arbitration must be completed within six months from the date the arbitrator enters upon the reference, and this period is mandatory and non-extendable.
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Question 12Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which one of the following section deals with form of summons?
ASection 60
Section 61
CSection 62
DSection 64
Why B. Section 61 of the BNSS prescribes the form and content of summons to be issued by a court, specifying the mandatory details such as the name of the accused, the offence, and the date and place of appearance.
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Question 13Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Under Cr. P.C provisions relating to prosecution of judge is provided under.
ASection 196
Section 197
CSection 198
DSection 199
Why B. Section 197 of the CrPC requires prior sanction from the appropriate government before prosecuting a judge for acts done in the discharge of official duties, as it protects judicial independence by preventing frivolous or retaliatory prosecutions.
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Question 14Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
A resides at Hyderabad, B at Calcutta and Cat Delhi. A, B and C being together at Allahabad, B and C make a joint promissory note payable on demand, and deliver to A. A may sue B and C:
AAt Allahabad where the cause of action arises.
BAt Calcutta, where B resides.
CAt Delhi, where "C" resides.
All of the above.
Why D. Under Section 6 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, a joint promissory note made by two or more persons makes them jointly and severally liable, so the holder may sue any one or all of them together.
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Question 15Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Section 25 empowers the supreme court to transfer any suit, appeal or other proceeding:
AFrom one High Court to another High Court.
BForm one civil court in court in one state to another civil court in any other state.
Both (A) and (B)
DOnly (A)
Why C. Section 25 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 empowers the Supreme Court to transfer any suit, appeal or other proceeding from a court in one state to a court in another state, or from one court to another within the same state, if it is necessary for the ends of justice or to avoid inconvenience to the parties.
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Question 16Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
In which of the following cases, can C set -off the claim?
AA sues Con a bill of exchange for Rs. 500/-, C alleges that A has wrongfully neglected to insure C's goods and he is liable to pay compensation.
A sues Con a bill of exchange for Rs.500/-, C holds a decree against A for recovery of debt of Rs. 1000/-.
CA sues B and C for Rs. 1000/-, the debt is due to Calone by A.
DA and B sues C for Rs. 1000/-, the debt is due to C by alone.
Why B. Under Section 47 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a debtor against whom a decree has been passed may set off a claim against the decree-holder if the claim is ascertainable, liquidated, and capable of being enforced in a court of law, provided it arises out of the same transaction or is otherwise legally recoverable by the debtor from the decree-holder.
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Question 17Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
The Latin word 'Res Ipsa Laquitur' means:
Things speaks it's story itself.
BWhere there is consent there is noinjury.
CBoth (a) and (b)
DNone of the Above
Why A. The phrase means that the thing itself speaks its story, implying that the nature of the accident or injury is such that negligence can be inferred without direct evidence, as it would not normally occur without someone's fault.
Question 18Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
In which of the following cases the 'Principal of common Employment' was evolved for the first time ?
ARylands Vs Fletcher
Priestley Vs Fowler
CAshby Vs White
DWagon Vs Mound
Why B. The principle of common employment was first established in Priestley v Fowler, where it was held that an employer is not liable for injuries to one employee caused by the negligence of another employee acting within the scope of their employment, as both are considered fellow servants under the same master.
Question 19Professional Ethics & Contempt
Disciplinary Committee of Bar Council is Conferred the powers of Civil Court under code of Civil Procedure 1908 by-
Aat Section 36 of Advocates Act 1961
Section 42 of Advocates Act 1961
CSection 42 A- of Auvocates Act 1961
DSection 28 of Advocates Act 1961
Why B. Section 42 of the Advocates Act, 1961 confers upon the Disciplinary Committee of the Bar Council the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for the purpose of conducting inquiries into professional misconduct.
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Question 20Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Which one of the following is a leading case on 'Injuria Sine Damnum' ?
ARylands Vs Fletcher
Ashby Vs White
CDonougue Vs Stevenson
DAll of the Above
Why B. Ashby v. White establishes that a legal right violated, even without actual damage, gives rise to a cause of action — this is the essence of injuria sine damnum, where the infringement of a legal right alone is sufficient for liability under Indian tort law.
Question 21Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Which one is leading case on Strict Liability?
AAlen Vs Flood
Rylands Vs Fletcher
CBorhil Vs Young
DDonougue Vs Stevenson
Why B. The case of Rylands v Fletcher establishes the principle of strict liability, where a person who brings onto their land and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes is liable for any damage caused by its escape, regardless of fault or negligence.
Question 22Constitutional Law
Section 66A was invalidated by the Supreme Court of India in:
AAnvar P.V. Vs P.K. Basheer, (2014)10 ScC 473.
Shreya Singhal Vs Union of India, AIR . -2015SC 1523.
CDr. Prafulla Desai Vs State of Maharashtra, AIR 2003 SC 2053.
DState (NCT of Delhi) Vs Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 Scc 600.
Why B. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was struck down as it violated the right to freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution, as the provision was overly broad and lacked reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2).
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Question 23Environmental Law
Environmental impact assessment (EIA) is uatory under
AIndian forest act
BAir act
CWildlife protection act
Environment protection act
Why D. Environmental impact assessment is mandatory under Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act, which empowers the central government to take measures for protecting and improving the environment, including requiring prior environmental clearance for certain projects.
Question 24Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
When two or more person, by fighting in a public place disturb the public the public peace, they are said to commit:
AA riot
An affray
CAn assault
DNone of the above
Why B. Under Section 159 of the BNS, an affray is committed when two or more persons fight in a public place and thereby disturb the public peace, as the law criminalizes such violent conduct that causes fear or alarm to the public.
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Question 25Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Promotion of "class hatred" in given under:
Section 153-A of the I.P.C
BSection 153-AA of the I.P.C
CSection 153-B of the I.P.C
DSection 144-A of the I.P.C
Why A. Section 153-A of the Indian Penal Code punishes acts that promote enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony, which includes promotion of class hatred.
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Question 26Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
The distinction between section 299 and 300 was made clear by Melvill.J.in:
AReg Vs Gorachand Gopee
RegVs Govinda
CGovinda Vs Reg
DReg Vs Hayward
Why B. The distinction between culpable homicide under Section 299 and murder under Section 300 of the IPC was authoritatively clarified in RegVs Govinda, where it was held that the presence of intention or knowledge of likely death, as required by Section 300, must be distinguished from the lesser mental state under Section 299.
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Question 27Constitutional Law
Which of the following is not a Federal feature of any Constitution
AWritten Constitution
BDouble set of Government
CRigid Constitutional
Single Citizenship
Why D. The Constitution of India provides for single citizenship, meaning every citizen owes allegiance only to the Union and not to any individual state, which distinguishes it from federal systems where dual citizenship may exist.
Question 28Constitutional Law
Parliament in exercise of its power to amend under Article 368, may not amend
APreamble
BFundamental Right
CSupreme Court
Basic statement
Why D. Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution even under Article 368, as such an amendment would violate the foundational principles upon which the Constitution is built, and the basic structure doctrine is an implied limitation on the amending power.
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Question 29Constitutional Law
Which article starts with "Subject to public order, morality & health".
AArticle 14
BArticle 15
CArticle 28
Article 25
Why D. Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality and health, as explicitly stated in its opening clause.
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Question 30Family Law
Section 19 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act 1956 provides for the Maintenance of:
AWife
BParents
Widowed daughter-in-law
DChildren
Why C. Section 19 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 entitles a widowed daughter-in-law to maintenance from her father-in-law if she is unable to obtain maintenance from her husband's estate or from her own property, as the law recognizes her dependent status within the joint family structure.
Question 31Family Law
Section 30 of the Hindu successions Act, 1956 deals with:-
AWoman estate
Testamentary Successions
CMale Successions
DFemale Successions
Why B. Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 deals with testamentary successions, as it empowers a Hindu to dispose of their property by will in accordance with the Indian Succession Act, 1925, regardless of the rules of intestate succession laid down in the Act.
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Question 32Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which one of the following sections of Cr.P.C deals with examination of person accused of rape by medical practitioner.
ASection 54-A
BSection 55-A
Section 53-A
DSection 60-A
Why C. Section 53-A of the Cr.P.C. mandates that when a person is accused of rape, the examination by a medical practitioner must be conducted in accordance with prescribed procedures to ensure proper collection of evidence while safeguarding the rights of the accused and the victim.
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Question 33Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
According to section 167 of the Cr.P.Can accused person can be remanded to police custody for not more than.
A7 days at one time
B30 days at one time
15 days at oneximg
D60 days at one time
Why C. Under Section 167 of the CrPC, an accused person can be remanded to police custody for a maximum of fifteen days in total, and this period cannot be extended beyond that limit under any circumstance.
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Question 34Family Law
Which of the following is essential for a valid adoption under the Hindu Marriage Act, 19552
ADatta homam
Actual giving and taking of child
CBoth (a) and (b)
DNone of the Above
Why B. Under Section 6 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a valid adoption requires the actual giving and taking of the child between the natural and adoptive parents; without this physical transfer, the adoption is not complete, regardless of any ceremony or intent.
Question 35Family Law
Hindu male can adopt a female child, if the difference of age between the two is of more than
A15 years
B18 years
C20 years
21 years
Why D. Under Section 11 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, a Hindu male adopting a female child must be at least 21 years older than the adoptee, as this age difference is a mandatory condition to ensure the adoption is lawful and protects the minor's interests.
Question 36Family Law
Which of the following relations is not dependent under Section 21 of the Hindu Adoption and maintenance Act 1956?
Grand Mother
BMother
CWidow
DDaughter
Why A. Under Section 21 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, a grandmother is not included in the list of dependents entitled to maintenance; only specified relations such as widows, minor children, and aged parents are covered, and grandmother does not fall within this statutory definition.
Question 37Evidence (IEA / BSA)
A communication made to the spouse during marriage, under section 122 Indian evidence act-
Remains privileged even after dissolution of marriage
BDoes not remain privileged after dissolution of marriage only by divorce
CDoes not remain privileged after dissolution of marriage only by death
DDoes not remain privileged in both the case (b) and (c)
Why A. Under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act, any communication made between spouses during marriage is privileged and cannot be disclosed in court, even after the marriage has been dissolved. This privilege survives the end of the marital relationship to protect the sanctity of confidential marital communications.
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Question 38Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Which section of the Indian Evidence act provides that an accomplice is a competent witness
ASection 114 illustration (B)
BSection 118
Section 133
DSection 134
Why C. Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that an accomplice is a competent witness, and a conviction may be based on the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice, though it is prudent to seek corroboration.
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Question 39Intellectual Property Law
Which is the subject matter of neighboring rights protection-
Performance
BDramatic work
CGeographical indication
DNew varieties and plant
Why A. Under Section 38 of the Copyright Act, 1957, neighboring rights protect the performance of artists, and the subject matter of such protection is the performance itself, including live or recorded acts by performers in literary, dramatic, or musical works.
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Question 40Law related to Taxation
Adam Smith has enumerated cannons of taxation which are accepted universally
AEquality and Certainty
BEquality, convenience and Economy
CEquality and Economy
Equality, Certainty, Convenience and Economy.
Why D. The principles of equality, certainty, convenience, and economy are universally accepted cannons of taxation, as enumerated by Adam Smith, and form the foundational framework for fair and efficient tax systems in legal and economic thought.
Question 41Law related to Taxation
For the first time in India Income tax law was introduced by Sir James Wilson in the year:
A1886
B1858
1860
DNone of the Above
Why C. The Income Tax Act was first introduced in India in 1860 by Sir James Wilson, marking the initial statutory framework for income taxation in the country under British colonial rule.
Question 42Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which one of the following sections of Cr. P.C deals with compoundable offence?
ASection 319
Section 320
CSection 321
DSection 324
Why B. Section 320 of the CrPC lists the offences that are compoundable, meaning they can be settled by agreement between the complainant and the accused, subject to the conditions and procedures laid down in that section.
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Question 43Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
What is the time limit under section 468 of Cr. P.C for taking cognizance:
AOne year
BTwo year
Three year
DNo limit
Why C. Under Section 468 of the CrPC, no court shall take cognizance of an offence after the expiry of three years from the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years.
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Question 46Labour & Industrial Law
Industrial relations cover the following area(s) i) Collective bargaining ii) Labour legislation iii) Industrial relations training iv) Trade unions
A(i)
B(i) and (i)
(i), (i) and (ii)
D(i), (ii), (ii) and (iv)
Why C. Industrial relations under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 primarily encompass collective bargaining and trade unions as core mechanisms for resolving workplace disputes and regulating employer-employee interactions; labour legislation forms the broader legal framework, while industrial relations training is a supportive practice, not a core legal component of the statutory regime.
Question 47Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
The term 'Suit of a Civil Nature' refers to:
Private rights and obligations of a citizen.
BPolitical, social and religious question.
CA suit in which principal question relates to caste or religion.
DAll of the above
Why A. Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, confers jurisdiction on civil courts to try all suits of a civil nature, which are those that involve private rights and obligations of a citizen, as opposed to matters of public law or political rights.
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Question 48Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
The rule of res Sub- Judice Implies:
Where the same subject matter is pending is a court of law for adjudication between the same parties, the other court is barred to entertain the case so long as the first suit goes on.
BWhere the same subject matter is pending in a court of law for adjudication between the different parties, the other court is barred to entertain the case so long as the first suit goes on.
CWhere the different subject matter is pending in a court of law for adjudication between the same parties, the other court is barred to entertain the case so long as the first suit goes on.
DNone of the above
Why A. Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, bars a court from entertaining a suit in which the matter in issue is directly and substantially the same as that pending in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, so long as the earlier suit remains undecided.
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Question 50ADR incl. Arbitration
Which among the following is not an ADR method under section 89 of CPC
Mini Trial
BJudicial settlement through lok adalat
CConciliation
DNone of the above
Why A. Mini Trial is not an ADR method under Section 89 of the CPC because the statute specifically lists mediation, conciliation, arbitration, and lok adalat as the recognized forms of alternative dispute resolution, and mini trial is not included among them.
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Question 51ADR incl. Arbitration
What is the maximum number of Conciliators allowed in a conciliations proceeding;
A1/1
B2/3
C5/5
None of above
Why D. Section 67 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996 provides that a conciliation proceeding shall be conducted by a single conciliator, unless the parties agree otherwise; there is no statutory maximum beyond the parties' mutual consent, making any fixed number incorrect.
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Question 52ADR incl. Arbitration
What is the status of a settlement agreement in conciliation proceed:
ANon -binding
same as a settlement award/ma
CUnlike a settlement award
DNone of the above
Why B. Under Section 73 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, a settlement agreement reached in conciliation proceedings has the same legal status as an award made in arbitration, and is enforceable as a decree of court.
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Question 53Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Under section 118 of the India act, a person in a competent witness if he or she
Aa major
Bnot lunatic
CIs not of extreme old age
is capable of understanding questions put to him and giving rational answers Irrespective of age
Why D. Under Section 118 of the Indian Evidence Act, a person is a competent witness if they are capable of understanding questions put to them and giving rational answers, regardless of age, as competence depends solely on mental capacity to comprehend and respond coherently.
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Question 54Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Which of the following Judgment is irrelevant under section 43 of Indian evidence act
AJudgement of an insolvency count
judegment of criminal court
CJudgement of matrimonial court
DJudgement of probate court
Why B. Under Section 43 of the Indian Evidence Act, judgments of criminal courts are irrelevant unless they fall under specific exceptions not applicable here, as the section generally excludes prior judgments from being evidence in civil proceedings.
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Question 55Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Under which section of the Indian evidence act a witness has been given right to refresh his memory,
ASection 157
BSection 158
Section 159
DSection 160
Why C. Section 159 of the Indian Evidence Act allows a witness to refresh his memory by referring to any writing made by himself at the time of the transaction, or when it was fresh in his memory, provided the document is produced and the opposite party has the right to inspect it.
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Question 56Constitutional Law
"Mandamus" May be issued by
ASupreme court
BHigh court
CDistrict court
Both a & b
Why D. Under Article 32 and Article 226 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court and High Courts respectively have the power to issue writs including mandamus to enforce fundamental rights and other legal rights.
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Question 57Constitutional Law
The provision for administration tribunals Is added by
42nd Amendment
B44th Amendment
C24th Amendment
D43rd Amendment
Why A. The 42nd Amendment added Articles 323A and 323B to the Constitution of India, which provide for the establishment of administrative tribunals and other tribunals to adjudicate disputes relating to public services and other specified matters.
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Question 58Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
The provision relating to free legal aid is given under
ASection 301
Section 304
CSection 303
DSection 305
Why B. Section 304 of the BNSS provides for free legal aid to an accused person who cannot afford it, ensuring the right to a fair trial under the principles of justice and equality before law.
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Question 59Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Under Which one of the following provisions of Cr.P.C police officer is under an obligation to produce the person arrested before a magistrate within 24 hours of the arrest
ASection 56
Section 57
CSection 60
DSection 70
Why B. Section 57 of the Cr.P.C. mandates that a person arrested by a police officer must be produced before a magistrate within twenty-four hours of the arrest, excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the court.
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Question 60Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Who may record confessional statement under section 164 of the Cr.P.C?
APolice Officer
Judicial officer
CBoth A and B
DJudicial Magistrate having Jurisdiction only.
Why B. Under Section 164 of the Cr.P.C., only a judicial officer may record a confessional statement, as this provision requires the person recording the confession to be independent, impartial, and vested with judicial authority to ensure voluntariness and admissibility.
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Question 61Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
The provision relating Plea bargaining is not applicable in following offence.
AScio-economic offence
BOffence against women
Both A and B
DNone of the above
Why C. Under Section 288 of the BNSS, plea bargaining is not applicable to offences affecting the socio-economic conditions of the country or offences committed against women or children, making both these categories exempt as stated in options A and B.
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Question 62Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
When two or more persons agree to do an illegal act or an act which is not illegal by illegal means such an agreement is designated as:
AAbetment by conspiracy
BAbetment by Aid
Criminal conspiracy
DAbetment
Why C. Under Section 61 of the BNS, an agreement between two or more persons to commit an illegal act, or to do a legal act by illegal means, constitutes criminal conspiracy, irrespective of whether any overt act is performed in furtherance of the agreement.
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Question 63Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
The provisions regarding sedition are given:
AUnder section 124 of the I.P.C
Under section 124-A of the I.P.C
CUnder section 121-A of the I.P.C
DUnder section 130 of the I.P.C
Why B. Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code defines sedition as any act that brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the Government established by law in India.
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Question 65Constitutional Law
The Ex-officio chairman of the council of state is?
AThe President
BSpeaker, Lok Sabha
Vice President
Done of the above
Why C. Under Article 64 of the Constitution of India, the Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States.
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Question 66Constitutional Law
Right to property in India is
AFundamental Right
Constitutional Right
CStatutory Right
DLegal Right
Why B. The right to property is a Constitutional Right under Article 300A of the Constitution of India, which provides that no person shall be deprived of their property except by authority of law, thereby affirming its status as a fundamental constitutional guarantee even after its removal from the list of Fundamental Rights.
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Question 67Constitutional Law
Which of the following writs means to produce the body of a person?
ACertiorari
BQuo warranto
CProhibition
Habeas Corpus
Why D. Habeas Corpus is the writ issued under Article 32 of the Constitution of India to produce the body of a person before the court to determine the legality of their detention.
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Question 68Administrative Law
Delegated legislation was declared constitutional In?
ABerubari case
Re Delhi laws act case
CKeshwarnand bharti case
DManeka Gandhi case
Why B. The delegation of legislative power to administrative authorities is constitutionally valid when the legislature lays down the policy and framework, and the delegate only fills in details within that framework, as established in the case concerning Delhi laws.
Question 69Company Law
A Prospectus which does not include complete particulars of the quantum or price of the securities included therein in known as:
AShelf Prospectus
BMemorandum
Red Herring Prospectus
Dissuing house
Why C. Under Section 32 of the Companies Act, a Red Herring Prospectus is a prospectus that omits complete details of the quantum or price of securities, as these are determined later during the book-building process, and it is legally permitted for use in public offers prior to final pricing.
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Question 70Company Law
When there is no profit in one year or the profit of a company is not enough to pay the fixed dividend on preference shares, the arrears of dividend are to be carried forward and paid before a dividend is paid on the ordinary shares. This is called:
AParticipating preference shares
cumulative preference shares
CNon- cumulative preference shares
DNon- Participating preference shares
Why B. Under Section 43 of the Companies Act 2013, cumulative preference shares entitle holders to receive unpaid dividends from previous years before any dividend is paid to equity shareholders, ensuring arrears are cleared first.
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Question 72Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Who among the following cannot transfer an immovable property?
AHindu widow
Muslim widow
CNatural guardian of a minor.
DKarta or manager of joint Hindu family
Why B. Under Section 7 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a person who is not competent to contract cannot transfer property, and a Muslim widow, being a minor or of unsound mind in certain contexts, lacks the legal capacity to transfer immovable property without court approval.
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Question 73Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
The doctrine of 'Lis pendens' was explained in the leading case of:
Bellamy Vs Sabine
BCooper Vs Cooper
CStreatifised Vs Streafield
DTulk Vs Moxbay
Why A. The doctrine of lis pendens, under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, was authoritatively explained in Bellamy v. Sabine, where it was held that a transfer of property during pending litigation binds the transferee subject to the final outcome of the suit.
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Question 74Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
X strike 'A'. 'A' is by this provocation excited to violent range.'y' a bystander intending to take advantage of 'A's rage and to cause him kill 'X', gives a revolver into 'A's hand for that purpose. 'A' kills 'X' with the revolver :
A is liable for committing murder and Y is liable for abetting murder.
BA is liable for committing culpable homicide and Y is not liable.
CA is liable for committing culpable homicide and Y is liable for abetting culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
DA is not liable and Y is liable for abetting murder.
Why A. Under Section 103 of the BNS, a person who intentionally aids or abets another in committing an offence is equally liable as the principal offender; here, Y intentionally provided the revolver to A with the intent that A use it to kill X, thereby abetting the murder, while A, acting under provocation, directly committed the act of killing.
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Question 75Constitutional Law
Right to free Legal Aid was recognised as a fundamental right under act 21 of Indian Constitution in the Case of-
Hussaainara Khatoun Vs Home Secretary, State of Bihar, Air 1979 SC 1360
BM.H Hoskot Vs State of Maharashtra, Air 1978SC 1548
CMadhu Mehta Vs Union of India (1989) 4 SC 1548
DRudal Shah Vs State of Bihar (199 45 Sc 14
Why A. The right to free legal aid is an essential component of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, and this case established that denial of legal aid to an indigent accused violates this fundamental right.
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Question 76Public Interest Litigation
In Which Country was the concept of pu Originated
AUnited Kingdom
United State of America
CIndia
DAustralia
Why B. The concept of public interest litigation originated in the United States of America, where courts developed the legal principle allowing individuals or groups to file suits on behalf of the public or disadvantaged classes, even without direct personal injury, to enforce constitutional rights and public duties.
Question 77Evidence (IEA / BSA)
A question suggesting the answers which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called-
AIndecent Questions
Leading Questions
CImproper Questions
DProper Questions
Why B. A leading question is one that suggests the answer the questioner wishes or expects to receive, and under Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act, such questions are generally prohibited in examination-in-chief but allowed in cross-examination.
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Question 78Family Law
Option of puberty is a ground of divorce Under Hindu Marriage Act 1955 for-
Aonly Husband
Only Wife
CBoth Husband and Wife
DNone of the Above
Why B. Under Section 13(2)(iv) of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955, the option of puberty is a ground for divorce available only to the wife, if she was married before the age of fifteen and repudiates the marriage after attaining puberty but before completing eighteen years of age.
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Question 79Family Law
Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 provides that a child from a void marriage would be legitimate?
ASection 11
BSection 13 (a)
CSection 12
Section 16
Why D. Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 provides that children born from a void or voidable marriage shall be legitimate, regardless of the validity of the marriage, and shall have the same rights as children born from a valid marriage.
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Question 80Environmental Law
Which of the following appears to contribute to global cooling rather than global warming
ANitrous Oxide
Aerosols
CMethane
DCFC
Why B. Aerosols are legally recognized under the Environment Protection Act, 1986 as substances that can reflect sunlight and reduce atmospheric temperatures, thereby contributing to global cooling, unlike greenhouse gases which trap heat and cause warming.
Question 81Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
A and B agree to fence with each other for amusement .This agreement implies the consent of each to suffer any harm which in the course of fencing, may be caused without foul play and if A, while playing fairly, hurts B. A commits no offence. The provision are given under:
Section 87
BSection 85
CSection 86
DSection 88
Why A. Section 87 of the BNS provides that an act done with the consent of the person, where the harm caused is not intended to cause death or grievous hurt, and is for a lawful purpose such as sport or amusement, does not constitute an offence.
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Question 82Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
The provision of the right of private defense are given:
AUnder section 96- 108 of the Indian penal code
BUnder section 94-106 of the Indian penal code
Under section 96- 106 of the Indian penal code
DUnder section 95-106 of the Indian penal code
Why C. Sections 96 to 106 of the Indian Penal Code lay down the legal principle that every person has the right to defend themselves or others against unlawful aggression, and this right extends to causing harm or even death in certain circumstances, provided it is done without exceeding the necessary force.
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Question 83Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
The parties which cannot be compelled to perform specific performances of contract are provided in which section of Specific Relief Act:
A27
28
C29
D30
Why B. Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act lists the types of contracts that cannot be specifically enforced, and it explicitly states that a contract which is not enforceable at the option of the other party cannot be compelled, and there are exactly twenty-eight such categories listed under this section.
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Question 84Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
What kind of property is transferable?
APension.
BPublic office.
CRight to re-entry
Any kind of property if not prohibited by law.
Why D. Under Section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, any property may be transferred unless it is expressly prohibited by law, making all property transferable unless a specific legal restriction applies.
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Question 85Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which of the following does not come under the 'immovable property' as per the T.P. Act?
Sales of a ceiling fan.
BRight to claim maintenance.
CRight relating to lease
DFasementary right.
Why A. Under Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, immovable property excludes standing timber, growing crops, or grass, and includes only things attached to the earth or permanently fastened to something attached to the earth; a ceiling fan is a movable article not permanently affixed and thus not immovable property.
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Question 86Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
State of U.P.Vs. Nawab Hussain,1977 sCR (3) 428 relates to:
ARes subjudice.
BRes judicate.
Constructive resjudicata
DDeemed rejudicata
Why C. Constructive res judicata under Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, bars a party from raising a ground or plea that could and should have been raised in a former suit between the same parties, even if it was not actually raised.
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Question 87Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
X is living in Pune and Y, his brother in Mumbai, X wants to file a suit for partition of their joint property situated in Delhi and Bangalore.
AThe suit may be instituted in Delhi only.
BThe suit may be instituted in Bangalore only.
The suit may be instituted either in Delhi or Bangalore.
DMone of the above.
Why C. Under Section 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a suit for partition of joint property situated in two or more jurisdictions may be instituted in any court within the local limits of any of those jurisdictions.
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Question 88Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
An immovable property held by Y is situated at Bhopal and the wrongdoer personally works for gain at Indore. A Suit to obtain compensation for wrong to the property may be instituted
AAt Bhopal
BAt Indore
Either at Bhopal or at Indore
DNone of these
Why C. Under Section 19 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a suit for compensation for wrong to immovable property may be instituted either where the property is situated or where the defendant personally works for gain, so the suit may be filed either at Bhopal or at Indore.
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Question 89Law related to Taxation
Under which Section of Income tax Act, 1961 'Income of other persons included in Assessee's total income'
A56-58
66-65
C45-54
DAll of the Above
Why B. Section 60 to 65 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 deals with the inclusion of income of other persons in the assessee's total income, with Section 66-65 specifying the order and scope of such inclusions under the doctrine of income attribution.
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Question 90Law related to Taxation
A period of 12th Months commencing on the 1st day of April of every year is known ...
Assessment year
BLeap year
CPrevious year
DNone
Why A. Under Section 2(9) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, the assessment year is defined as the period of twelve months commencing on the first day of April every year, during which the income of the previous year is assessed and taxed.
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Question 91Cyber Law
Which Section of the Information technology (amendment) Act, 2008 desla with the validity of contracts formed through electronic means:
ASection 12
Section 10A
CSection 11
DSection 13
Why B. Section 10A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (as amended in 2008) provides that contracts formed through electronic means shall be valid and enforceable, recognizing electronic records and digital signatures as legally sufficient for contract formation.
Question 92Constitutional Law
Joint sitting of both Houses of parliament may be called by the?
ASpeaker
BChairman
President
DPrime Minister
Why C. Under Article 108 of the Constitution of India, the President has the exclusive power to summon a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve a deadlock between them on a legislative matter.
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Question 93Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Specific relief........... Where the agreement is made with minor (fill in the blanks).
ACan get
Cannot be given
Ccan release
DImplemented with law
Why B. Under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act 1963, a suit for specific performance cannot be maintained where the agreement is made with a minor, because a minor is legally incapable of entering into a valid contract, and no relief can be granted on an agreement that is void ab initio.
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Question 94Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
A person entitled to the possession or specific immovable property may res In the manner provided by:
The code of procedure, Act 1908.
BThe Indian registration Act, 1908
CThe Indian Contract Act, 1872.
DThe Transfer of property Act, 1882.
Why A. Section 5 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides that the procedure for recovering possession of specific immovable property must be followed as prescribed by this Code, and no other method is legally valid.
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Question 95Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Section 39 of Specific Relief Act deals with-
ARegistration of Instrument
Bcancellation of Instruments
CCorrectness of Instruments
None of the above
Why D. Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act provides for the cancellation of instruments, but only when the instrument is void or voidable and the plaintiff is entitled to relief; it does not cover all types of relief or remedies, and none of the listed options correctly describe its scope.
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Question 96Evidence (IEA / BSA)
A "dumb witness" gives his evidence in writing in the open court, such evidence would be treated as
oral evidence
BDocumentary evidence
CSecondary evidence
DPrimary evidence
Why A. Under Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, oral evidence means evidence given by a witness in court through spoken words, and when a dumb witness communicates his testimony in writing in open court, it is treated as oral evidence because it is a direct, contemporaneous communication of facts intended to be heard by the court.
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Question 97Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Under the Indian evidence act, which of the following is not a court
APersons legally authorised to take evidence
BJudges
CMagistrates
Arbitrators
Why D. Under Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, a 'court' includes all judges and magistrates, and any person empowered by law to take evidence; arbitrators are not included because they are not judicial officers exercising statutory authority to take evidence in a court proceeding.
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Question 98Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Which of the following section of the motor vehicle Act 1988 defines the term 'Owner'?
Section 2 (30)
BSection 2 (31)
CSection 2 (25)
DSection 2 (32)
Why A. Section 2(30) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 defines the term 'Owner' as the person in whose name the vehicle is registered, or the person in lawful possession of the vehicle if it is not registered.
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Question 99Land Acquisition Act
Under Land Acquisition Act, 1894 an . industrial concern, ordinarily, employing not less than....................workmen owned by an individual or by an association of individuals and not being a Company, desiring to acquire la erection of dwelling houses for workmen employed by the concern or for the provision of amenities directly connected therewith shall, so far as concerns the Acquisition of such land, be deemed to be a company for the purpose of this part, and the references to company in (sections 4, 5A, 6, 7, and 50) shall be interpreted as references also to such concern. Fill in the blanks:
One Hundred
BTwo Hundred
CThree Hundred
DFour Hundred
Why A. Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, an industrial concern not structured as a company is deemed a company for acquisition purposes only if it employs not less than one hundred workmen, ensuring that larger private entities with significant workforce infrastructure are subject to the same acquisition procedures as companies.
Question 100Land Acquisition Act
Under Land Acquisition Act, 1894 the expression "Company" means-
a company as defined in section 3 of the Companies Act, 1956, other than a Government company referred to in clause(cc);
Ba company as defined in section 2 of the Companies Act, 1956, other than a Government company referred to in clause (c)
Ca company as defined in section 1 of the Companies Act, 1956(1 of 1956) other than a Government referred to In clause (cc);
Da company as defined in section 6 of the Companies Act, 1956 (1 of 1956), other than a Government company referred to in clause (c);
Why A. Under Section 3 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, the term 'Company' means a company as defined in section 3 of the Companies Act, 1956, other than a Government company referred to in clause (cc), because the Act explicitly excludes Government companies from this definition to limit its scope to private corporate entities engaged in public purpose projects.
The Bar Council of India typically declares the AIBE result about 30 to 40 days after the exam. Until then, this unofficial answer key lets you estimate your score immediately.
The passing cutoff is 45% (45/100) for General/OBC candidates and 40% (40/100) for SC/ST/PwD candidates.
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