All 100 questions of AIBE-12 (2018) Set A with the correct answer, an original explanation, and the exact bare-act provision a tap away. No negative marking. The qualifying cutoff is 45 of 100 for General and OBC, 40 of 100 for SC, ST and PwD.
AIBE 12 (XXI) Set A Answer Key 2018 with Solutions
Answer key at a glance
Question 1Constitutional Law
The First constitutional amendment was enacted in
A1950
1951
C1967
D1975
Why B. The First constitutional amendment was enacted in 1951 to address early challenges in implementing land reform and other social welfare measures, as the Supreme Court had struck down certain laws as violating fundamental rights, prompting the need to clarify the scope of those rights and the state's power to regulate property and social justice.
Question 2Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
A person instigates any person to do an offence or illegal act or omission attracts
Section 107 IPC
BSection 120(B) of IPC
CSection 114 of IPC
DSection 144 of IPC
Why A. Section 107 IPC defines instigation as intentionally encouraging, provoking, or aiding another person to commit an offence, making the instigator equally liable as if they had committed the act themselves.
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Question 3Constitutional Law
A land mark Habeas Corpus Petition was filed during emergency , that is
AKeshavanand Bharati V/s. State of Kerala
BGolaknath V.s State of Punjab
CMC Mehta V/s. Union of India
ADM Jabalpur V/s. Shivkant Shukla
Why D. During the emergency, Article 32 of the Constitution was suspended, and the right to move any court for the enforcement of fundamental rights, including habeas corpus, was effectively curtailed; this case established that even in such circumstances, the writ of habeas corpus could not be denied as it is intrinsic to personal liberty under the Constitution.
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Question 4Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Examination in Chief is conducted by the
AChief Examiner of the court
BA lawyer appointed by the accused
CA lawyer appointed by the government
DPresiding judge in the court
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Question 5Environmental Law
The convention of Climate Change was the outcome of
AThe Stockholm Conference
BThe Nairobi Conference
CThe Vienna Conference
The Rio De Janeiro Conference
Why D. The Rio De Janeiro Conference was the international meeting where the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change was adopted, establishing the foundational legal framework for global cooperation to combat climate change.
Question 6Labour & Industrial Law
Who is a protected workman
AWorkman given police protection during labour strike
BWorkman protected by insurance coverage
Workman who is an executive or office bearer of a registered trade union in the establishment
DWorkman protected from being arrested by a court order
Why C. Under Section 33(3) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, a workman is protected if he is an executive or office bearer of a registered trade union in the establishment, as this status grants him legal immunity from unfair dismissal during industrial disputes.
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Question 7Intellectual Property Law
A trade mark is a visual symbol applied to articles of commerce with a view to distinguish the articles from other. It is in the form of
AA word
BA device
CA label
All the above
Why D. Under Section 2(1)(zb) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, a trade mark includes any mark capable of being represented graphically and which is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of others, and may consist of words, devices, labels, numerals, shapes of goods, packaging, or combinations thereof — hence all the above are valid forms.
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Question 8ADR incl. Arbitration
The Indian Legal system has evolved a new technique of alternate dispute resolution which is popularly known as Lok Adalat. It owes its origin to the statutory recognition by passing of
ALegal Service Corporation Act , 1974
BLegal aid and advice Act , 1949
Legal Services Authorities Act , 1987
DNone
Why C. Lok Adalat is a statutory mechanism for alternate dispute resolution established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, which empowers authorities to facilitate amicable settlement of disputes through conciliation and compromise, giving its awards the status of a decree of a civil court.
Question 9Family Law
Shah Bano case was related to
ADowry demand
BHarassment at work place
Maintenance of divorced Muslim women
DTriple divorce of Muslim Women
Why C. Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, provides for maintenance to a wife, including a divorced Muslim woman, who is unable to maintain herself, regardless of personal law, as long as she has not remarried.
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Question 10Public Interest Litigation
Who can move PIL in High Court and Supreme Court,
AAny public spirited person
BNGO or Association with public spirit
CGroup of Public spirited persons who have no personal interest
All the above
Why D. Under Article 32 and Article 226 of the Constitution of India, any public-spirited individual or organization may move a Public Interest Litigation in the Supreme Court or a High Court to enforce fundamental rights or other legal rights, even if not directly affected, as these provisions empower the courts to act in the public interest.
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Question 11Constitutional Law
Doctrine of ‘Pleasure’ applies to
ALegislative
Civil servants
CJudges
DCabinet Ministers
Why B. The Doctrine of Pleasure applies to civil servants as per Article 310 of the Constitution of India, which provides that they hold office during the pleasure of the President or the Governor, as the case may be, subject to constitutional safeguards.
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Question 12Professional Ethics & Contempt
Section 24 A of Advocates Act 1961 provides the
AAppointment of Attorney General
BRegular attendance at Law College
CAdmitted for enrolment in Bar or State Roll
DElection to state Bar Council
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Question 13Company Law
Articles of a company can be altered by
AThe directors of the company
BThe official of the company
CShare holders by passing an ordinary resolution
Share holders by passing a special resolution
Why D. Under Section 14 of the Companies Act, 2013, the articles of a company may be altered only by a special resolution passed by the shareholders, as this is the exclusive statutory method for modifying the company's constitutional documents.
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Question 14Constitutional Law
Article 361 provides
AAuthority to Union government to dismiss the state governments
BAuthority to the state governments to pass legislation
Protection and immunities to the President and Governors from being prosecuted in courts
DNone of the above
Why C. Article 361 of the Constitution of India grants the President and Governors of States complete protection from any criminal proceedings, whether during their term or after, and bars civil proceedings against them for acts done in their official capacity, ensuring their uninterrupted functioning without judicial interference.
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Question 15Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Uttering of words with deliberate intention to wound religious sentiments will be dealt with
Section 298 of IPC
BSection 296 IPC
CSection 297
DNone of the above
Why A. Section 298 of the Indian Penal Code criminalizes uttering words, making sounds, or exhibiting objects with deliberate intention to wound the religious feelings of any person, making it the applicable provision for such an offense.
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Question 16Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Under Section 320(1), Cr.P.C for criminal intimidation, with section of IPC is applicable
A503
B504
C505
506
Why D. Under Section 320(1) of the Cr.P.C., criminal intimidation is compoundable with the consent of the person injured, and the relevant IPC section is 506, which defines the offence of criminal intimidation.
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Question 17ADR incl. Arbitration
Which of the following is an innovative form of Alternative Dispute Resolution mechanism
ABar Council of India
BElection Commission
CComptroller and Auditor General
Lok Adalat
Why D. Lok Adalat is an innovative form of Alternative Dispute Resolution established under Section 22 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, which empowers it to settle disputes amicably through conciliation and compromise, without adjudication, thereby reducing litigation burden and ensuring access to justice.
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Question 18Family Law
Which of the following is not a legal guardian of the property of Muslim minor
AFather
Brother
CThe executor appointed by father
DGrand father
Why B. Under Muslim Personal Law, a brother is not a legal guardian of a minor's property; only the father, paternal grandfather, or a testamentary guardian appointed by the father hold that authority, as the law prioritizes direct male lineage and parental responsibility in guardianship.
Question 19Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Who is garnishee
A third party who is instructed by way of legal notice to surrender money to settle a debt or claim
BA borrower arrested for defaulting
CA person who cannot repay a bank loan
DA person who mortgaged his farm land
Why A. A garnishee is a third party who holds money or property belonging to a judgment debtor and is ordered by the court, through legal notice, to surrender that money to satisfy a debt or claim, as provided under Section 60 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
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Question 20Land Acquisition Act
Under section 18 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 which of the following officers is empowered to refer the matter to the court
AThe Tahsildar
BThe Sub Collector
CThe Deputy Collector
The Collector
Why D. Under Section 18 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, the Collector is the officer empowered to refer any objection to the award to the court, as the Collector is the designated authority responsible for overseeing the acquisition process and determining the adequacy of compensation.
Question 21Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
For Specific Performance of a contract suit is to be instituted in
3 years
B3 months
C6 months
DNo specific time limit unless mentioned in the contract
Why A. Under Section 20 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a suit for specific performance must be instituted within three years from the date when the contract was to be performed, as this is the period of limitation prescribed for such suits.
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Question 22Law related to Taxation
Permanent Account Number (PAN) is defined under
AWealth Tax
BGST
Income Tax Act 1961
DFinance Act 1992
Why C. Permanent Account Number (PAN) is defined under Section 139A of the Income Tax Act, 1961, which mandates its issuance to taxpayers for identification and tracking of financial transactions relevant to taxation.
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Question 23Family Law
A marriage with a woman before completion of her iddat is______:
Irregular
BVoid
CVoidable
DNone of these
Why A. Under the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937, a marriage contracted during the iddat period of a woman is irregular because it violates the mandatory waiting period required after the dissolution of a prior marriage, rendering the union voidable but not void ab initio.
Question 24Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Section 10 of the CPC provides for
Stay of the suit
BSummoning witness
CExamination of witness
DSentencing the judgement
Why A. Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, mandates a stay of the suit when a matter substantially in issue is already pending in a court in India, to prevent multiplicity of proceedings and conflicting judgments.
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Question 25Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Who is prevented from being testified u/s 118 of Indian Evidence Act
AA lunatic who cannot understand the questions put to him
BExtreme old age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions
CA tender age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions
All the above
Why D. Under Section 118 of the Indian Evidence Act, no person is prevented from testifying merely on the ground of age, mental capacity, or religious belief; all persons are competent to testify unless the court finds them incapable of understanding the questions or giving rational answers.
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Question 26Constitutional Law
Supreme Court decided in SR Bommai V/s. Union of India,
Relating to the President Rule in state
BRelating to the illegal detention
CRelating to the right to clean environment
DNone of the above
Why A. Article 356 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to impose President's Rule in a state when the constitutional machinery in the state has broken down, and the Supreme Court in SR Bommai v. Union of India clarified that such a proclamation is subject to judicial review and must be based on objective material.
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Question 27Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Recovery of specific immovable property is defined
Section of 5 of Specific Relief Act
BSection 120 (B) of IPC
CUnder section 10 of Sale of goods Act
DNone of the Above
Why A. Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act provides the legal principle for the recovery of specific immovable property, allowing a person entitled to possession to sue for its recovery when wrongfully dispossessed.
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Question 28Law related to Taxation
Section 29 of the Wealth Tax Act deals with
ARevision petition in division bench of High Court
Appeal in Supreme Court
CReturn of Wealth Tax
DNone of the above
Why B. Section 29 of the Wealth Tax Act provides that any order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals) may be appealed to the Supreme Court, and no higher forum exists under this Act, making appeal in the Supreme Court the only available remedy after the Commissioner (Appeals).
Question 29Land Acquisition Act
The Collector shall under the Land Acquisition Act 1894, give immediate ---- -------------of any correction made in the award to all the persons included
AApproval
BStay
CAnnouncement
Notice
Why D. Under the Land Acquisition Act 1894, the Collector is required to provide notice to all affected persons whenever any correction is made to the award, ensuring they are formally informed and have an opportunity to respond, which upholds the principle of natural justice and procedural fairness.
Question 30Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgements, decrees or orders etc . can be corrected
AUnder Section 151 of CPC
Under Section 152 of CPC
CUnder Section 153 of CPC
DUnder Section 153 A of CPC
Why B. Section 152 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, empowers the court to correct any clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, decrees, or orders, or errors arising from any accidental slip or omission, at any time on its own motion or on application by any party.
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Question 31Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Any confessional statement by the accused given to the Magistrate is
Admissible
BNot admissible
CChallengeable
DNone of the above
Why A. A confessional statement made to a Magistrate is admissible under Section 26 of the Indian Evidence Act because it is made in the presence of a judicial authority, ensuring voluntariness and removing the risk of coercion by police.
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Question 32Constitutional Law
Supreme court has decided in Keshavanand Bharati V/s. State of Kerala, that
AParliament can amend any provision of the constitution
BParliament cannot amend any provision of the constitution
Parliament can amend any provision of the constitution but not to alter the basic structure and basic feature of the constitution
DNone of the above
Why C. Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution, but it cannot use this power to destroy or alter the basic structure or essential features that define the identity and democratic character of the Constitution.
Question 33Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Under which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure , police can arrest an accused without warrant?
ASection 40
Section 41
CSection 42
DSection 37
Why B. Section 41 of the Code of Criminal Procedure authorises a police officer to arrest a person without a warrant when they have reasonable grounds to believe the person has committed a cognisable offence.
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Question 34Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
“A” is at work with a hatchel : the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by . If there was no want of a proper caution on the part of A , his act is excusable and not an offence. It is contained in
Section 80 of IPC
BSection 84 of IPC
CSection 81 of IPC
DSection 85 of IPC
Why A. Section 80 of the Indian Penal Code provides that an act done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge, and in the course of a lawful act performed with proper care and caution, is not an offence.
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Question 35Public Interest Litigation
Delhi Domestic Working Women Forum v/s. Union Of India (1995) 1 SC 14, In this PIL which issue was exposed before the court ,
The plight of some domestic maids who were sexually assaulted by army men
BAbolition of child labour
CUnemployment of domestic servants in Delhi
DPoor salary of maid servants
Why A. The case exposed the systemic failure of the state to protect vulnerable women from sexual violence, particularly those in domestic service, affirming the state's constitutional duty to safeguard the right to life and personal liberty with dignity under the Constitution of India.
Question 36Cyber Law
Which chapter of Cyber Law provides the legal Recognition to Digital Signature
Chapter III
BChapter IV
CChapter IX
DChapter IX and X
Why A. Chapter III of the Information Technology Act, 2000 provides legal recognition to digital signatures under Section 3, which establishes the framework for their use and validity in electronic transactions.
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Question 37Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
The FIR gives information of
AReport to the Magistrate about the inquiry conducted by a police officer
BReport submitted to the court by the investigation officer in a criminal case
The commission of a cognizable crime
DNone of the above
Why C. The FIR gives information of the commission of a cognizable crime, as Section 173 of the BNSS requires the police to submit a report when a cognizable offence has been investigated, making such a commission the foundational trigger for the FIR process.
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Question 38Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Definition of complainant is described in Consumer Protection Act under section ‘
Section 2(1)(b)
BSection 20
CSection 21
DNone of the above
Why A. Section 2(1)(b) of the Consumer Protection Act defines a complainant as a consumer who files a complaint regarding a defective product or deficient service, or any recognized association or the central or state government acting on behalf of consumers.
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Question 39Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following deals with plaint in interpleader –suits in the code of civil procedure?
AOrder 12, Rule 1
BOrder 17, Rule 10
COrder 33, Rule 18
Order 35 Rule 1
Why D. Order 35 Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides the procedure for filing a plaint in an interpleader suit, where a person holding money or property claims no interest in it and seeks the court’s direction to determine the rightful claimant among conflicting parties.
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Question 40Constitutional Law
Which is not the Private Right
ARights of property
BRight of freedom
CRights to Education
All the above
Why D. The Constitution of India establishes fundamental rights that are enforceable against the state, not private individuals; rights like equality, freedom, and protection of life are public in nature and cannot be claimed as private rights between individuals.
Question 41Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which one of the following is true of summons under Section 61 Cr.P.C?
AIt is milder form of process
BIt is for appearance
CIt is for producing documents or thing
All of them
Why D. Under Section 61 of the Cr.P.C., a summons must be in writing, signed by the presiding officer, and bear the seal of the court; it must also be served personally on the person summoned, and if that is not possible, it may be served on an adult member of their household or left at their residence. All these requirements are mandatory and collectively define a valid summons under this section.
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Question 42Evidence (IEA / BSA)
The Kashmira Singh Vs. State of Punjab is a leading case on
ADying Declaration
BAdmission
CConfession
None of the above
Why D. Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act excludes confessions made by an accused person if they appear to have been caused by inducement, threat, or promise, coming from a person in authority and sufficient to give the accused reasonable grounds for believing that they would gain an advantage or avoid an evil. The case cited in the option does not relate to this section, and no other option correctly identifies the legal principle under Section 24.
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Question 43Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
What is main objective of Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act
ARecovery of stolen property
BRecovery of seized vehicles from RTO
Recovery of the cheque amount incase cheque issued by the payer is bounced
DNone of the above
Why C. The main objective of Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act is to ensure the credibility of cheques as a mode of payment by providing a criminal remedy for the recovery of the cheque amount in case the cheque is dishonoured due to insufficient funds or for any other reason attributable to the drawer.
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Question 44ADR incl. Arbitration
Part III of Arbitration and Conciliation Act , 1996 formalizes
Process of Conciliation
BProcess of Arbitration
CEnforcement of Foreign awards under New York and Geneva Conventions
DAll of the above
Why A. Part III of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalizes the process of conciliation as a structured, statutory mechanism for resolving disputes amicably through the assistance of a neutral third party, without resorting to litigation or arbitration.
Question 45Constitutional Law
Separation of judiciary from Executive is guaranteed in constitution under Article
A19
B21
C48-A
50
Why D. Article 50 of the Constitution of India mandates the separation of the judiciary from the executive to ensure impartial administration of justice, and this principle is a Directive Principle of State Policy.
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Question 46Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
In- camera trial is conducted in the cases charged under section
A302 IPC
B307 IPC
376 IPC
D498 –A –IPC
Why C. In-camera trial is mandated under Section 327 of the CrPC for offenses under Section 376 IPC, as the law requires such proceedings to be held in private to protect the dignity and privacy of the victim.
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Question 47Family Law
The Family courts have concurrent jurisdiction to pass a decree for dissolution of marriage under the Indian Divorce Act: In which case the order was passed:
AHanda v/s. Handa (AIR 1955)
Dr. Mary V/s. Dr. Vincent (AIR 1991)
CPeter V/s. Anglina (AIR 1992)
DNone of the above
Why B. Under Section 7 of the Family Courts Act, 1984, a Family Court is vested with the jurisdiction otherwise exercisable by district and subordinate civil courts in matrimonial causes, including suits and proceedings for a decree of dissolution of marriage; such matters therefore fall within its jurisdiction.
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Question 48Professional Ethics & Contempt
Punishment for Advocates for misconduct is defined in Advocates Act 1961 by
ASection 25
BSection 33
Section 35
DNone of the above
Why C. Section 35 of the Advocates Act 1961 empowers the State Bar Council to punish advocates for professional or other misconduct, including by warning, suspending, or removing their names from the roll.
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Question 49Public Interest Litigation
Which one is a case of public interest
AVishaka V/s State of Rajasthan
BMinerva Mills V/s. Union of India AIR 1980
CMunicipal Council, Ratlam V.s. Vardichand AIR 1980
DAll the above
Question 50Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Under section 239 Cr.PC, the Magistrate can
AFrame charges against the accused person
Discharge the accused if charges are groundless.
COpen trial for evidence
DConvict the accused if pleaded guilty
Why B. Under Section 239 Cr.PC, the Magistrate must discharge the accused if, after considering the police report and documents, the charges are found to be groundless, as the stage is not for trial but for determining if there is sufficient prima facie evidence to proceed.
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Question 51Constitutional Law
Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances
When the state legislature is not in session
BDuring the course of legislature session
COn the recommendation of the state cabinet
DWith the permission of the union government
Why A. Article 213 of the Constitution of India permits the Governor to promulgate ordinances only when the state legislature is not in session, to address urgent matters that cannot wait until the next session.
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Question 52Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
A person arrested should not be detained more than
A48 hours
24 hours
C14 days
D90 days
Why B. Under Section 43 of the BNSS, a person arrested without a warrant must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of the arrest, excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the court.
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Question 53Family Law
Who of the following Muslim is not entitled to maintenance
ASon who is a minor
BDaughter who is not married
CGrand parents
An Illegitimate son
Why D. Under the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, maintenance is available to a divorced Muslim woman and her dependent children, but an illegitimate son is not recognized as a dependent entitled to maintenance under this law, as the statute only covers legitimate offspring in the context of post-divorce support.
Question 54Evidence (IEA / BSA)
In civil cases Indian Evidence Act bestows burden of proof on
The Petitioner
BThe respondents
CThe state government
DThe Court
Why A. Under Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act, the burden of proof lies on the person who asserts a fact, and in civil cases, that person is the Petitioner who initiates the claim.
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Question 55Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
In which of the following of Section 59 Cr. P. C the discharge of the arrested person by a police officer can take place?
AOn his own bond
BOn bail
CUnder special order of the Magistrate
All of them
Why D. Section 59 Cr. P. C. permits a police officer to discharge an arrested person if the investigation does not warrant further detention, and this applies to all situations where the person is not required to be produced before a magistrate, including when no offence is disclosed, the complaint is false, or the person is wrongly arrested.
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Question 56Constitutional Law
Financial Relations between the state and centre are defined in constitution
ABetween Article 245-255
BBetween Article 256 -263
Between 264 to 293
DNone of the above
Why C. Financial relations between the Union and the States are governed by Articles 264 to 293 of the Constitution of India, which prescribe the distribution of revenues, taxes, duties, and grants-in-aid between the Centre and the States.
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Question 57Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Mahatma Gandhiji was jailed and prosecuted by British regime in 1922 at Ahmedabad u/s 124(A) of IPC for
ACalling Hartal
BBreaching public peace and tranquillity
Sedition and disaffection to the government
DNone of the above
Why C. Section 124A of the IPC criminalizes acts that bring or attempt to bring into hatred or contempt, or excite or attempt to excite disaffection towards the government established by law, which is the legal basis for prosecuting speech or actions deemed seditious.
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Question 58Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Police can seek a bond for good behaviour u/s. 109 and 110 of Cr.PC from
Habitual offenders
BWhite collar criminals
CJail inmates
DNone of the above
Why A. Under Sections 109 and 110 of the CrPC, police may seek a bond for good behaviour from habitual offenders who are likely to commit future offences, as these provisions empower authorities to take preventive action against persons with a pattern of criminal conduct.
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Question 59Family Law
Dayabhaga school Presumes that "a family because it is joint possesses joint property"
AThis statement is correct
BThis presumption is under Mitakshara school
This statement is incorrect
DNone of these
Why C. The Dayabhaga school does not presume that a joint family automatically holds joint property; instead, it holds that property is individual until partition, and inheritance arises only upon the death of the owner. This contrasts with the Mitakshara school, which recognizes joint ownership by birth in a coparcenary.
Question 60Labour & Industrial Law
Meaning of Industrial Dispute according to the Industrial Dispute Act 1947 is
ADispute between employers and employers
BDispute between employers and workman
CDispute between workmen and workmen in connection with employment and non-employment
All the above
Why D. Under Section 2(k) of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, an industrial dispute includes any dispute or difference between employers and employers, or between employers and workmen, or between workmen and workmen, connected with the employment or non-employment or terms of employment or conditions of labour of any person, and this definition encompasses all such variations as listed in the options.
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Question 61Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
English case Ryland V/s. Fletcher laid down a very important rule
AAbsolute Liability
BVicarious liability
CIndirect liability
DFinancial liability
Question 62Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which of the following is not an essential for a valid sale:
AThe parties must be competent to contract
BThere must be mental consent
CThere must be a transfer of property
There must be an agreement to sell
Why D. Under Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, a valid sale requires an agreement to sell, delivery of possession, and payment of consideration; without an agreement to sell, there is no binding contract for transfer of ownership, making it an essential element.
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Question 63Constitutional Law
“Custodial death is perhaps one of the worst crimes in a civilised society governed by the Rule of Law”. In which case supreme court made this remark,
AA.K. Gopalan V/s. State of Madras
BM.C. Mehta V/s. Union of India
D.K. Basu V/s. State of Bengal
DVisakha V/s. State of Rajasthan
Why C. The Supreme Court made this remark in D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, where it laid down essential safeguards against custodial violence, affirming that the right to life and personal liberty under the Constitution includes protection from torture or abuse while in police custody.
Question 64Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
A suit for compensation for false imprisonment, the period of limitation is
A3 year’s from the date of sentencing the judgement
B3 year’s from the date of release from imprisonment
C3 year’s from the date of commencing the imprisonment
1 year when the imprisonment ends
Why D. Under Section 25 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the period of limitation for a suit for compensation for false imprisonment is one year, computed from the date the imprisonment ends.
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Question 65Constitutional Law
Rule of Law is defined by
AJeremy Bentham
BSir John Salmond
A.Y .Diecy
DProf. Aristotle
Why C. The Rule of Law, as understood in the Indian constitutional framework, is defined by A.V. Dicey, who articulated it as the supremacy of regular law over arbitrary power, equality before the law, and the predominance of legal spirit over discretionary authority.
Question 66Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
What is the time prescribed for filing an FIR
AWithin 24 hours
BWithin 48 hours
CWithin 14 days of the offence
No time limit is specified
Why D. Section 173 of the BNSS does not prescribe any specific time limit for filing an FIR; the law requires prompt reporting but does not fix a deadline, leaving it to the circumstances of each case.
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Question 67Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following is true of rules framed by the Supreme Court with reference to appeals to it?
AThey are a special law within Section 4 of the code of civil procedure
BThey must take precedence over Section. 114 or Order. 47
CBoth (A) and (B)
None of these
Why D. The Supreme Court has the power to frame rules for regulating its own procedures, including appeals, but such rules cannot override or alter the substantive provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908; any option suggesting otherwise would be legally invalid, making none of the given choices correct.
Question 68Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
An Appeal Against Order Passed under Section 27 of the Consumer Protection Act , 1986 by the National Commission lies in
AThe High Court
The Supreme Court
CThe Central Government
DNot Appealable
Why B. An appeal against an order passed by the National Commission under Section 27 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 lies to the Supreme Court, as this is the only appellate authority provided by the Act for such orders.
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Question 69Professional Ethics & Contempt
Which is the body that award punishments to the advocates for misconduct
AEthics Committee
BProfessional Development Committee
Disciplinary Committee
DHigh Court
Why C. Under Section 35 of the Advocates Act 1961, the Disciplinary Committee is the statutory body empowered to inquire into and decide upon professional misconduct by advocates and to impose appropriate punishments.
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Question 70Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which section of Sale of Goods Act 1930 deal with anticipatory breach of contract
ASection 50
BSection 65
Section 60
DSection 70
Why C. Section 60 of the Sale of Goods Act 1930 deals with anticipatory breach of contract, where one party, before the time for performance, clearly indicates an intention not to perform their obligations, entitling the other party to treat the contract as breached and claim remedies immediately.
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Question 71Intellectual Property Law
Criminal proceedings against the infringer is enabled in the Copyright act by invoking the provisions
ASection 13-16
BSection 17-27
Section 63-70
DNone of the above
Why C. Section 63-70 of the Copyright Act, 1957 prescribes criminal penalties for copyright infringement, including imprisonment and fines, and empowers authorities to initiate prosecution against offenders.
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Question 72Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which section of Indian Registration Act 1908 provides with compulsory registration of Instrument of Gifts and Immovable Properties
ASection 11
BSection 13
Section 17
DNone of the above
Why C. Section 17 of the Indian Registration Act, 1908 mandates the compulsory registration of instruments of gift of immovable property, as well as other documents relating to the transfer of immovable property of value exceeding one hundred rupees.
Question 73Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
State government’s power to control the road transport is provided in the Motor Vehicle Act 1988 Under section,
67 of MV Act 1988
B68 of MV Act 1988
C69 of MV Act 1988
DNone of the above
Why A. Section 67 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 empowers the State Government to regulate road transport by granting permits for the operation of transport vehicles within the state, thereby establishing its authority over road transport control.
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Question 74Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Doctrine of “LIS PENDENS” is given under which section of the transfer of property Act
A41
52
C53
D53A
Why B. The doctrine of lis pendens is provided under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, which states that during the pendency of a suit relating to immovable property, any transfer of that property by a party to the suit shall not affect the rights of any other party under any decree or order that may be made in the suit.
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Question 75Constitutional Law
Which of the following statements is true regarding the characteristics of International Law?
AIt is a true law
BIt has vertical structure
CIt has well established institutes of governance
DIt has formal law enforcing agencies
Question 76Family Law
Deferred mahr is payable at the time of divorce or at the time of death of spouse.
This statement is true under Sunni law.
BThis statement is not true.
CDeferred mahr is payable only at the time of divorce.
DDeferred is mahr is payable only at the time of death of the spouse.
Why A. Under Sunni law, deferred mahr is a contractual obligation that becomes payable upon the dissolution of marriage by divorce or the death of the husband, as it is treated as a debt owed to the wife and is enforceable under the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937.
Question 77Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Dying declaration must be made by
AThe dying person in hospital
BThe doctor who is treating the deceased in hospital
The deceased before death
DNearest relative of the deceased
Why C. A dying declaration is admissible under Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act only if it is made by the deceased before death, as the exception to the hearsay rule applies specifically to statements made by a person who is deceased and believed to be facing imminent death.
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Question 78Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Judgement should be delivered to the parties or to their pleaders in the open court
ABy delivering the whole of the judgement
BBy reading out the whole of the judgement
CBy reading out the operative part of the judgement
All of the above
Why D. Section 353 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 mandates that the judgment must be pronounced in open court and delivered to the parties or their pleaders, ensuring transparency and the right to be heard as a fundamental procedural requirement.
Question 79Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which of the following deals with the evidence for prosecution
Section 242 Cr.P.C
BSection 264 Cr.P.C
CSection 237 Cr.P.C
DSection 235 Cr.P.C
Why A. Section 242 Cr.P.C. governs the framing of charges and requires the prosecution to present its evidence before the charge is framed, ensuring that the accused is informed of the case against them based on the evidence gathered.
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Question 80Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Abetting the Commission of suicide is given under
ASection 9 of IPC
BSection 8 of IPC
CSection 7 of IPC
None of the above
Why D. Section 107 of the BNS defines abetment as instigating, conspiring, or intentionally aiding an act, but suicide cannot be abetted because the person committing it cannot be punished under the law, and abetment requires a punishable act by the principal, which does not exist in suicide.
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Question 81Constitutional Law
Control over sub ordinate courts shall be vested in the
High Court
BSupreme Court
CChief Minister
DGovernor
Why A. Under Article 235 of the Constitution of India, the control over subordinate courts is vested in the High Court, including the posting, promotion, and disciplinary control of judicial officers below the High Court.
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Question 82Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Section 34 of the CPC provides
AThe Payment of fine imposed by the court
BPayment of compensation to the other party
Payment of interest
DNone of the above
Why C. Section 34 of the CPC authorizes the court to award interest on the principal sum adjudged, from the date of the suit to the date of decree, and further interest from the date of decree to the date of payment, ensuring full compensation for the delay in payment.
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Question 83Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it expects to receive is called :
ACoercive question
BConfusing question
CMisleading question
DRhetoric Question
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Question 84Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
According to clauses (i),(ii) and (iii) of section 145 of the code of civil Procedure a surety:
AMay render himself personally liable
BHe may only give a change upon his property
CHe may undertake a personal liability and charge his property as further charge
All of these
Why D. Section 145 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides that a surety may apply for the discharge of the suretyship if the principal debtor is discharged by the creditor, if the creditor acts in a manner that prejudices the surety's rights, or if the surety's liability is altered without consent — making all these grounds valid under the statutory provision.
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Question 85Labour & Industrial Law
Section 49 of Factories Act 1947 explains about
ACanteen
BCreche
Welfare officer
DRest room
Why C. Section 49 of the Factories Act 1947 mandates the appointment of a welfare officer in factories employing five hundred or more workers, to promote the health, safety, and well-being of workers, making welfare officer the correct answer.
Question 86Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
The word “case” used in Section. 115 of the code of civil Procedure is of wide import and
AIt means any state of facts juridically considered
It includes civil proceeding other suits and is not restricted to anything contained in the section to the entirety of the proceeding in a civil court
CBoth (A) and (B)
DNone of these
Why B. The term 'case' in Section 115 encompasses all civil proceedings other than suits, and its scope is not limited by any specific language in the section—it extends to the entirety of proceedings in a civil court, ensuring broad supervisory jurisdiction by the High Court.
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Question 87Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
“A” finds a purse with money not knowing to whom it belongs , he afterwards discovers that it belongs to “B” and appropriates to his own use.”A” is guilty of
ACriminal breach of trust
BCheating
Criminal misappropriation
DTheft
Why C. Under Section 314 of the BNS, criminal misappropriation occurs when a person, having come into lawful possession of property, subsequently converts it to their own use with dishonest intent; here, "A" lawfully found the purse but dishonestly appropriated it upon discovering its owner, satisfying the elements of this offence.
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Question 88Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
The word “is not possessed of sufficient means “ in Order 33 Rule 1 refer :
ATo dower debt due by the petitioner’s husband
BTo property over which petitioner has actual control
CTo sufficient property and excludes sole means livelihoods
None of these
Why D. The phrase "is not possessed of sufficient means" in Order 33 Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, is a condition for granting pauper status and refers to the applicant's inability to pay court fees, not to general poverty or lack of assets; it is a legal test of financial incapacity specific to litigation costs, and none of the common misinterpretations—such as absolute destitution or absence of any property—correctly capture its narrow legal meaning.
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Question 89ADR incl. Arbitration
Section 22 B of Legal Services Authority Act empower the central and state Authorities to
AAbolish Lok Adalat
BWorks of Lok Adalat
CPowers of Lok Adalat or permanent Lok Adalat
None of the above
Why D. Section 22B of the Legal Services Authorities Act empowers the Central and State Legal Services Authorities to constitute Permanent Lok Adalats for public utility services, but it does not empower them to adjudicate disputes outside the scope of public utility services or to function as regular courts; none of the options presented correctly capture this limited and specific power.
Question 90Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Indian Evidence Act was enacted in
A1972
1872
C1955
D1986
Why B. The Indian Evidence Act was enacted in 1872 as the foundational statute governing the admissibility and relevance of evidence in judicial proceedings across India, establishing uniform rules that remain in force today.
Question 91Professional Ethics & Contempt
Which is the correct state statement with regard to the professional ethics of a lawyer
ALawyers have no right to go on strike or give a call for boycott
BAn advocate shall not influence the decision of a court by any illegal or improper means
CAn advocate abusing the process of the court is guilty and misconduct
All of the above
Why D. Under Section 35 of the Advocates Act 1961, the Bar Council has the authority to discipline an advocate for misconduct, which includes professional misconduct, conduct unbecoming of a lawyer, and failure to uphold the dignity of the profession — making all listed statements correct.
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Question 92Administrative Law
Droite Administration is a system of administration
French system
BBritish system
CAmerican System
DIrish System
Why A. Droite Administration refers to the French system of administrative law, where administrative disputes are handled by specialized administrative courts separate from ordinary civil courts, reflecting a distinct legal tradition rooted in continental European jurisprudence.
Question 93Cyber Law
Which Act is covering the Cyber crimes
AIndian Telecommunication Act
BIndian Penal Code
CIndian Evidence Act
Information Technology Act
Why D. The Information Technology Act is the primary legislation in India that specifically addresses cyber crimes, including unauthorized access, data theft, cyber fraud, and other digital offenses, establishing legal frameworks for electronic transactions and digital accountability.
Question 94Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
In the tort of conspiracy , the purpose of combination must be to
Violate legal right of the victim
BCause damage to the victim
CObtain benefit for the combiners
DPerfect the interest of combiners
Why A. In the tort of conspiracy, the purpose of the combination must be to violate the legal right of the victim, as the law requires an unlawful objective to establish liability, even if no physical harm occurs — mere agreement without infringement of a legal right does not constitute the tort.
Question 95Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Cancellation of instrument is mentioned in
ASection 8-25 of Specific Relief Act
BSection of 26 of Specific Relief Act
Section 31-33 of specific Relief Act
DSections 36-42 of Specific Relief Act
Why C. Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act provides for the cancellation of an instrument when it is void or voidable, and the plaintiff is entitled to relief against the defendant who is in possession of it; Sections 32 and 33 further elaborate on the consequences and conditions for such cancellation.
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Question 96Labour & Industrial Law
Unfair labour practice by the employers
AVictimization
BFalse implication in criminal case
CUntrue allegations of absence without leave
All the above
Why D. Under Section 2(ra) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, unfair labour practices by employers include any act that interferes with, restrains, or coerces workers in the exercise of their rights to organize, bargain collectively, or participate in lawful strikes, and all such acts are collectively classified as unfair labour practices.
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Question 97Environmental Law
The Costal Regulation Zone Notification was issued by the Central Government in
A1986
B1988
1991
D1997
Why C. The Coastal Regulation Zone Notification was issued by the Central Government in 1991 under Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, which empowers the Central Government to take measures for protecting and improving the environment, including issuing notifications for regulation of activities in ecologically sensitive areas.
Question 98Family Law
Who is lawful guardian
AA person who in law represents the Minor :
BA person who has been appointed by the court
CA person who has been authorised to represent an unmarried daughter
All the above
Why D. Under Section 4 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the natural guardians of a Hindu minor include the father, the mother, and in the case of a minor boy or girl, the husband of the minor girl, and all are recognized as lawful guardians in their respective capacities.
Question 99Company Law
Under the Companies Act every person subscribing to the Memorandum of a company must take at least
A100 shares
B20 shares
C10 shares
1 share
Why D. Under Section 4 of the Companies Act, every person subscribing to the Memorandum of a company must take at least one share, as this establishes their initial ownership stake and commitment to the company's capital structure.
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Question 100Law related to Taxation
GST came into force from
A1st January 2017
B1st April 2017
1st July 2017
D1th August 2017
Why C. The Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 came into force on 1st July 2017, as notified by the Government, marking the unified implementation of GST across India under the constitutional framework established by the 101st Amendment.
The Bar Council of India typically declares the AIBE result about 30 to 40 days after the exam. Until then, this unofficial answer key lets you estimate your score immediately.
The passing cutoff is 45% (45/100) for General/OBC candidates and 40% (40/100) for SC/ST/PwD candidates.
No. AIBE has no negative marking, so every correct answer earns one mark while wrong or unanswered questions simply earn zero.
No. This is an unofficial answer key with detailed solutions, provided to help you estimate your score. Always verify against the official key published on allindiabarexamination.com.
Use the free score calculator. Enter the option you marked for each question, either as a quick answer sheet or one question at a time, and get your exact score, cutoff verdict, and subject breakdown instantly.
This is an unofficial answer key prepared for educational purposes and to help candidates estimate their score before the official result. Answers reflect our expert analysis and may differ from the final Bar Council of India key. Always verify against the official key at allindiabarexamination.com .
Answer key
