All 100 questions of AIBE-11 (2017) Set A with the correct answer, an original explanation, and the exact bare-act provision a tap away. No negative marking. The qualifying cutoff is 45 of 100 for General and OBC, 40 of 100 for SC, ST and PwD.
AIBE 11 (XXI) Set A Answer Key 2017 with Solutions
Answer key at a glance
Question 1Law related to Taxation
Section 154 under IT Act is
AFor filing return of Income
BFor filing return with late fee
Rectification of mistakes
DAppeal against the order passed by the ITO
Why C. Section 154 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 empowers the income tax authority to rectify any mistake apparent from the record, ensuring that clerical or arithmetic errors in orders are corrected without requiring a fresh proceeding.
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Question 2Law related to Taxation
Which of the following is not included in the Capital Asset under Section 2 (14) of Income Tax Act
AAny stock in Trade
BSpecial Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central Government
(a) and ( b)
DNone of the above
Why C. Under Section 2(14) of the Income Tax Act, capital asset excludes stock-in-trade, personal effects used for personal purposes, and agricultural land in a rural area; options (a) and (b) correctly identify these exclusions.
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Question 3ADR incl. Arbitration
The language which is to be used in the arbitral proceedings is decided by
AThe Tribunal
Parties to decide by mutual understanding
CThe petitioner
DThe Defendant
Why B. Under Section 22 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the parties are free to agree on the language to be used in the arbitral proceedings, and in the absence of such agreement, the arbitral tribunal shall determine the language, but the foundational principle remains that the parties must first decide by mutual understanding.
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Question 4ADR incl. Arbitration
The Arbitral proceeding shall stand terminated
AOn making of the final award
BBy an order of the arbitral tribunal
CWhen the parties to the dispute agree to terminate proceedings
All of the above
Why D. Under Section 32 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, an arbitral proceeding stands terminated upon the issuance of the final award, the withdrawal of the claim by the claimant, or the mutual agreement of the parties to terminate the proceedings — hence all listed scenarios are valid grounds for termination.
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Question 5ADR incl. Arbitration
Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be
AOrder of district collector
BOrder of Income Tax commissioner
Decree of a civil court
D(a) and (b)
Why C. Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court under Section 21 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, because the Act gives such awards the same legal status and enforceability as a civil court decree, making them final and binding without any appeal.
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Question 6ADR incl. Arbitration
The Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, Section 18-27 states
The Conducting of Arbitral Proceedings
BReceipt and Written Communications
CExtent of judicial intervention
DAwarding final decision
Why A. Section 18-27 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996 governs the conduct of arbitral proceedings, ensuring that parties are treated equally and each is given a full opportunity to present their case, which is the foundational principle of fair arbitral process.
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Question 7Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Provision of Section 80 of CPC is binding on
AThe High Court
BThe court of civil judge
CThe district judge
All of the above
Why D. Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 requires notice to be given to the government or public officer before instituting any suit against them, and this requirement applies to suits against the Union of India, State Governments, and public officers acting in their official capacity — hence, all of the above.
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Question 8Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Temporary Injunction can be granted
ASuo moto
Ex parte
CHearing both parties
DNone of the above
Why B. Under Section 94 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a court may grant a temporary injunction to prevent harm or preserve the subject matter of the suit, even in the absence of the opposite party, provided the circumstances justify ex parte relief.
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Question 9Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Right to Appeal is a
ANatural Right
BInherent right
Statutory right
DDelegated right
Why C. The right to appeal is a statutory right because it is created and defined by law enacted by the legislature, not by the Constitution itself; the Constitution guarantees procedural fairness but does not automatically confer a right to appeal unless provided by statute.
Question 10Family Law
The last amendment to the Indian Succession Act was made in
A2000
B2001
2002
D2004
Why C. The Indian Succession Act was last amended in 2002, which introduced changes to simplify the procedure for obtaining grants of probate and letters of administration, particularly for non-Muslim and non-Hindu succession matters under its purview.
Question 11Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which is the correct statement :
There can be a will without a codicil
BThere can be a codicil without a will
CEvery will has a codicil
DA codicil proceeds a will
Why A. Under Section 2 of the Indian Succession Act, a will is a legal declaration of a testator's intentions regarding the disposal of their property after death, and a codicil is merely an addition or amendment to an existing will; therefore, a will can exist independently without any codicil.
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Question 12Family Law
As per Section 63 of Indian Succession Act, a Will should be attested by
ABy two witnesses
By two or more witnesses
COnly one witness who is not a relative of testator
DNone of the above
Why B. Under Section 63 of the Indian Succession Act, a Will must be attested by two or more witnesses, each of whom must have seen the testator sign or affix his mark to the Will, or have heard the testator acknowledge his signature or mark, and each must sign in the presence of the testator.
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Question 13Family Law
‘Iddat’ under Mohammadan law refers to
AA gift made on the occasion of marriage
BThe right of the husband to divorce his wife
CAttaining of puberty
None of the above
Why D. Iddat under Mohammadan law is the waiting period a Muslim woman must observe after the dissolution of marriage by death or divorce, during which she cannot remarry; it is not a period of mourning, nor a form of divorce, nor a right of the husband to reclaim the wife.
Question 14Family Law
Under the Christian Marriage Act the marriage Registrar for any district is appointed by
State government
BThe central government
CThe Clergyman of the Church
DHigh Court judges
Why A. The Christian Marriage Act empowers the State government to appoint the marriage Registrar for any district, as it is the State government that administers civil registration and marriage-related functions under its legislative authority.
Question 15Administrative Law
The word ‘Ombudsman’ is derived from
AFrench administration
BBritish Administration
Swedish Administration
DGerman Administration
Why C. The term 'Ombudsman' originates from the Swedish administrative system, where it refers to an official appointed to investigate complaints against government bodies and ensure fair treatment of citizens.
Question 16Administrative Law
Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry Act 1952, an Inquiry Commission is appointed by
Central government or State government
BUnion Public Service Commission
CState Public commission
DSupreme Court of India
Why A. Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952, the Central Government or a State Government has the authority to appoint a Commission of Inquiry to investigate matters of public importance, as the Act explicitly vests this power in either level of government.
Question 17Cyber Law
Information Technology Act was enacted in
A1988
B1996
2000
D2004
Why C. The Information Technology Act was enacted in the year 2000 to provide legal recognition for electronic transactions and to address cybercrimes in India.
Question 18Cyber Law
Government of India passed Information Technology Act in 2000 with objective
ATo provide legal sanction to all transaction for e-commerce
BTo facilitate electronic filing of all documents to the government
CTo amend Indian Penal Code, Indian Evidence Act, to punish the cyber crimes
All of the above
Why D. Section 1 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 establishes its applicability to the whole of India and provides the legal framework for recognizing electronic records and digital signatures, thereby enabling electronic governance and securing electronic transactions.
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Question 19Constitutional Law
Right to Personal liberty includes
ARight against custodial violence
BRight of under trials to separate them from convicted
CRight against Public hanging
All of the above
Why D. Under Article 21 of the Constitution of India, the right to personal liberty encompasses the right to live with dignity, the right to privacy, the right to speedy trial, and the right to legal aid, as these are inherent and essential components of life and personal liberty.
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Question 20Constitutional Law
The Supreme Commander of the Defence Force of India is
President
BPrime Minister
CThe Defence Minister
DChief Marshal
Why A. Under Article 53 of the Constitution of India, the President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of India, vesting in the President the supreme command of the armed forces as the constitutional head of the state.
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Question 21Constitutional Law
Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges is
A62 years
B60 years
C58 years
65 years
Why D. Under Article 124 of the Constitution of India, a Judge of the Supreme Court holds office until they attain the age of 65 years, and this is a mandatory constitutional limit.
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Question 22Constitutional Law
Criminal Procedure Code is a subject of
Concurrent list
BState list
CUnion list
DNone of the above
Why A. The Criminal Procedure Code is a subject under the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India, as provided in Section 246, which allows both the Union and the States to legislate on this matter.
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Question 23Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Bailable and Non-Bailable offence has been defined in
Section 2 ( a) of Cr.PC
BSection 2 (b) of Cr. Pc
CSection 2 (c) of Cr. Pc
DSection 20 of IPC
Why A. Section 2(a) of the Cr.PC defines bailable and non-bailable offences, and this definition is the sole statutory source for distinguishing between the two categories under the Code of Criminal Procedure.
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Question 24Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Under Section 21 of Cr.PC, Special Executive Magistrate may be appointed by
ACentral Government
BHigh court
CSupreme Court
State Government
Why D. Under Section 21 of the Cr.P.C., the power to appoint a Special Executive Magistrate rests exclusively with the State Government, as it is the authority empowered to make such appointments for the efficient administration of criminal justice within its territorial jurisdiction.
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Question 25Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Police may carry out personal search on an arrested person,
AU/s 49 Cr.PC
BU/s. 50 Cr.PC
U/s. 51 Cr.PC
DU/s. 52 Cr.PC
Why C. Under Section 51 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, a police officer may search an arrested person to find articles that may be used as evidence or to prevent escape, and this power is exercisable immediately upon arrest without requiring a warrant.
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Question 26Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
The Special Court is
ANot subordinate to High Court
BSuperior to High Court
CSupplement to High Court
DEqual to Supreme court
Question 27Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
The powers under Section 159 of Cr.PC can be exercised by a magistrate
AWhen the police decides not to investigate the case
BWhen the investigation is still going on
CBoth (a) and (b)
None of the above
Why D. Section 159 of the CrPC authorizes a police officer, not a magistrate, to inquire into the facts of a case upon receiving information about a cognizable offense; the magistrate's role under this section is limited to directing an investigation if requested, but the power to initiate inquiry rests solely with the police officer.
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Question 28Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Statement recorded during investigation U/s. 161 can be used in trial
For contradicting the witness
BFor corroborating the witness
CIncorporating in the charge sheet
DDischarging the accused
Why A. Under Section 180 of the BNSS, a statement recorded during investigation under Section 161 may be used to contradict the witness if the witness deposes differently in court, but not as substantive evidence.
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Question 29Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Power of taking cognizance of offence by a Magistrate of First class or second class is provided
AUnder Section 173 of Criminal Procedure Code
Under Section 190 of Criminal Procedure Code
CUnder Section 190 of Indian Penal Code
DNone of the above
Why B. Under Section 190 of the Criminal Procedure Code, a Magistrate of the first class or second class may take cognizance of an offence upon receiving a police report, a complaint, or information from any person other than a police officer, provided the offence is within their jurisdiction and not barred by law.
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Question 30Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Additions or alteration of charges is provided in Cr. PC
AU/s. 214
BU/s. 215
U/s. 216
DU/s.210
Why C. Under Section 216 of the CrPC, the court may add to or alter the charge at any time before judgment is pronounced, provided the accused is given a reasonable opportunity to meet the new charge.
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Question 31Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which Section of Specific Relief Act prohibits filing a case against the government?
ASection 5
Section 6
CSection 7
DSection 8
Why B. Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, provides a summary remedy for recovery of possession of immovable property and explicitly excludes suits against the government, making it the governing provision that prohibits such filings.
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Question 32Intellectual Property Law
The Patent Act became a law in
1970
B1975
C1996
D1966
Why A. The Patent Act was enacted in 1970 to establish a comprehensive legal framework for the protection of inventions in India, replacing earlier colonial-era legislation and aligning with international standards for intellectual property rights.
Question 33Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Cheque bouncing cases charged U/s. 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act is trialed by
ABank Tribunal
BConsumer Forum
Magistrate Court
DSessions court
Why C. Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, a cheque bounce case is trialed by a Magistrate Court because the offence is cognizable and non-bailable, and the law specifically vests jurisdiction in Magistrates to try such criminal complaints.
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Question 34Constitutional Law
The provision of establishing Public Service Commission is made under
AArticle 310
Article 315
CArticle 320
DArticle 325
Why B. Article 315 of the Constitution of India establishes the Public Service Commission for the Union and for each State, providing the constitutional foundation for their creation and function.
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Question 35Environmental Law
The case Krishna Gopal V/s State of MP relates to
AWater pollution
BAir and water pollution
Noise and air pollution
DWater and noise pollution
Why C. The case concerns noise and air pollution because the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, empowers authorities to regulate emissions and disturbances that degrade air quality, including excessive noise as a form of air pollution under its broad statutory intent to protect public health and the environment.
Question 36Professional Ethics & Contempt
What is the punishment for advocates if the established finding of the Bar Council is misappropriation?
AImpose a fine
BName of the advocate will be struck off from the Rolls
CSuspension from practice
All of the above
Why D. Under Section 35 of the Advocates Act 1961, the Bar Council may punish an advocate for misconduct including misappropriation by suspending the advocate from practice, removing the advocate's name from the roll, or imposing a fine — all of which are valid penalties under the statute.
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Question 37Professional Ethics & Contempt
On being aggrieved by the order of State Bar Council, one can appeal to
AHigh Court
BSupreme court
Bar Council of India
DIndian Law Commission
Why C. Under Section 37 of the Advocates Act 1961, the Bar Council of India is the appellate authority against orders passed by a State Bar Council.
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Question 38Professional Ethics & Contempt
Which Section of Advocates Act provides punishment for misconduct of advocates
ASection 29
Section 35
CSection 37
DAll of the above
Why B. Section 35 of the Advocates Act empowers the State Bar Council to inquire into and punish advocates for professional or other misconduct, making it the sole provision governing disciplinary action against advocates for misconduct.
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Question 39Professional Ethics & Contempt
Section 24 of Advocate Act deals with
Qualification of advocates who should be enrolled in the Bar
BQualification to become the Advocate General
CQualification to become the Solicitor General of India
D(b) and (c)
Why A. Section 24 of the Advocates Act, 1961 lays down the qualifications required for a person to be enrolled as an advocate, making it the legal provision that defines the eligibility criteria for enrollment in the Bar.
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Question 40Labour & Industrial Law
Under the Workmen's Compensation Act, which is helpful in deciding the extent of injury for compensation
AInsurance certificate
BMedical examination
CMedical Certificate
(b) and (c)
Why D. The extent of injury for compensation is determined by the nature and degree of permanent disablement as defined in the schedule, and the loss of earning capacity directly resulting from the injury, both of which are essential for calculating the correct amount of compensation.
Question 41Labour & Industrial Law
Section 23 of Workmen Compensation Act 1923 says that the Commissioner shall have the power of
A court
BA Tribunal
CA quasi judicial form
DAll of the above
Why A. Section 23 of the Workmen Compensation Act 1923 empowers the Commissioner to exercise the same powers as a civil court for the purposes of inquiry and disposal of claims, including summoning witnesses and enforcing production of documents.
Question 42Labour & Industrial Law
The objective of the Industrial Dispute Act 1947 is
AIndustrial peace and economic justice
BTo create harmonious relation between employer and employee
CTo prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.,
All of the above
Why D. The Industrial Disputes Act 1947 aims to secure industrial peace by providing mechanisms for the investigation and settlement of disputes, protecting workers from unfair practices, and promoting collective bargaining between employers and employees — all of which are integral to its statutory purpose.
Question 43Labour & Industrial Law
Section 2 (q) of Industrial Dispute Act 1947 provides the definition of
ALock out
BLay off
CStrike
DHartal
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Question 44Land Acquisition Act
The Land Acquisition Act came into force from
A1st March 1955
B1st March 1986
C1st March 1994
1st March 1894
Why D. The Land Acquisition Act, 1894 came into force on 1st March 1894, as this was the date notified by the Central Government under the Act's provisions for its commencement, making it the legally effective date of enforcement.
Question 45Land Acquisition Act
Under the Land Acquisition Act, the arable land means
AUseful for residential purpose
BUseful for commercial purpose
Useful for cultivation
DUseful for industrial purpose
Why C. Under Section 3 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, arable land is defined as land that is useful for cultivation, as it refers to land capable of being tilled and used for growing crops, which is the legal standard for determining such land for acquisition purposes.
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Question 46Constitutional Law
Which one is not a fundamental right?
ARight to Freedom of Assembly
Right to Property
CRight to equality
DRight to freedom of speech and Expression
Why B. The Right to Property is not a fundamental right under the Constitution of India, as it was removed from Part III by the 44th Amendment and is now a legal right protected under Article 300A.
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Question 47Constitutional Law
In Maneka Gandhi case it was observed that
AConfiscation of Passport was correct
BRight to go abroad is not within the meaning of Article 21
Right to go abroad is within the ambit of Article 19 (1) (A) but the confiscation of Passport is not in accordance to the law
DNone of the above
Why C. The right to go abroad is protected under Article 19(1)(a) as part of personal liberty, but the confiscation of a passport without following due process violates the principle that any restriction must be in accordance with law, as mandated by Article 21.
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Question 48Constitutional Law
Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the right of free movement
In the interest of general public
BIn the interest of political leaders
CIn the interest of women's safety
DAll of the above
Why A. Under Article 19(1)(d) of the Constitution of India, the right to move freely throughout the territory of India is guaranteed, but reasonable restrictions may be imposed in the interest of the general public, as permitted by Article 19(5).
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Question 49Constitutional Law
Which of the following can claim Article 19 of constitution?
AA company
BA corporation
Only citizens
DCitizens and aliens
Why C. Only citizens can claim the rights under Article 19 of the Constitution of India, as this provision explicitly guarantees freedoms such as speech, assembly, and movement to citizens alone, and does not extend these protections to non-citizens.
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Question 50Constitutional Law
Clause (3) of Article 20 (i) of the Indian Constitution says that no accused person shall be compelled to be
AAn accused
BA witness
A witness against himself
DHostile witness
Why C. Clause (3) of Article 20 of the Indian Constitution protects an accused person from being compelled to be a witness against himself, ensuring that no one can be forced to provide testimonial evidence that may incriminate them.
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Question 51Constitutional Law
Indra Sawhney V/s Union of India is popularly known as
AJudges Transfer Case
BIllegal Detention case
Mandal Commission case
DConstitutional case
Why C. The Mandal Commission case established the legal principle that reservations in public employment for socially and educationally backward classes are constitutionally valid, subject to a 50% ceiling and exclusion of the creamy layer, as an extension of the equality guarantees under the Constitution.
Question 52Constitutional Law
Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers were benefitted
AN K Chanda V/s. State of Haryana
Olga Tellis V/s Bombay Municipal Corporation
CPV. Narasimharao V/s. Union of India
DRatlam Municipal Council V/s. Vardichand
Why B. The case established that the right to livelihood is an integral part of the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution, and thus slum dwellers cannot be evicted without providing alternative means of survival.
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Question 53Public Interest Litigation
A Public Interest Litigation can be filed under
AArticle 226 of constitution and Article 32 of the constitution
BU/s. 133 of Criminal Procedure Code
(a) and (b)
DNone of the above
Why C. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed under Article 32 by any person for enforcement of fundamental rights, and under Article 226 by any person for enforcement of fundamental rights or any other legal right, as both provisions empower the Supreme Court and High Courts respectively to issue writs for such purposes.
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Question 54Constitutional Law
Supreme Court in SP Gupta V/s. Union of India AIR 1982 SC 149, decided on
AFree Legal Aid
BBonded labours
Judges Transfer
DIllegal detention
Why C. Under Article 124, 217 and 222 of the Constitution of India, the transfer of judges between High Courts and to the Supreme Court is a power vested in the President, acting on the advice of the Council of Ministers, and such transfers are not subject to judicial review on grounds of propriety or motive, making Judges Transfer the correct legal principle.
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Question 55Environmental Law
Supreme court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath case evolved,
ABasic Future and Basic structure doctrine
Public Trust doctrine
CSeparation of power doctrine
DPublic Interest doctrine
Why B. The Public Trust doctrine holds that certain natural resources, like air, water, and forests, are held by the state as a trustee for the benefit of the public, and cannot be alienated or exploited in a manner that undermines their essential public use. This principle, rooted in the Constitution, imposes a fiduciary duty on the state to protect these resources for present and future generations.
Question 56Constitutional Law
Vishakha v/s. State of Rajasthan case is related to
Sexual harassment at workplace
BProtection of civil rights
CUniform civil code
DNone of the above
Why A. The Constitution of India under Articles 14, 15, 19(1)(g), and 21 guarantees the right to equality, protection from discrimination, freedom to practice any profession, and the right to life and personal liberty, which together establish the legal principle that sexual harassment at workplace violates a woman's fundamental rights.
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Question 57Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Court's power to award compensation is provided in Specific Relief Act
AUnder Section 20
Under Section 21
C(a) and (b)
DNone of the above
Why B. Under Section 21 of the Specific Relief Act, the court has the power to award compensation in lieu of specific performance or in addition to it, when relief by specific performance is not granted or is insufficient.
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Question 58Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Proving of hand writing is provided in Indian Evidence Act
ABy the opinion of Experts
BBy the evidence of a person who is acquainted with the handwriting
CAfter police verification
(a) and (b)
Why D. Under Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, the opinion of experts on handwriting is admissible to prove the authenticity of a document, and Section 47 allows the court to consider the handwriting of a person when the question is whether a document was written by that person.
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Question 59Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides
ANo confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
BConfession made by a person in police custody is admissible
CConfession made in the immediate presence of a magistrate is admissible
(a) and (c)
Why D. Section 26 of the Indian Evidence Act excludes any confession made to a police officer as evidence, regardless of whether it was induced or not, because the law treats police custody as inherently coercive and incompatible with voluntary confession.
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Question 60Evidence (IEA / BSA)
The term 'Evidence' means and includes
AOral evidence
BDocumentary evidence
CElectronic records produced for the inspection of the court
All of the above
Why D. Under Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 'Evidence' means and includes all statements made by witnesses before the court, all documents produced for inspection, and all objects whose physical properties are subject to examination — thus, all of the above are legally included.
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Question 61Criminal Procedure (CrPC / BNSS)
Which is the authority that determines the language of the Court other than High Court within a given State, under Section 271 of Cr.PC
AState government
BCentral government
CSupreme Court of India
DBoth (a) and (b)
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Question 62Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
A decree can be
AFinal
BPreliminary
COnly Preliminary not final
Either preliminary or final
Why D. Under Section 2(2) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a decree includes either a preliminary decree or a final decree, as both are formal expressions of an adjudication that determines the rights of the parties with respect to any of the matters in controversy in the suit.
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Question 63Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Foreign Judgement is defined in CPC
Under Section 2(6) of CPC
BUnder Section 2(7) of CPC
CUnder Section 2(8) of CPC
DNone of the above
Why A. Under Section 2(6) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a foreign judgment is defined as the judgment of a foreign court, which means a court situated outside India and not established or continued by the authority of the Central Government.
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Question 64Company Law
The Minimum number of persons required to incorporate a Public Company is
A5
B10
7
D2
Why C. Under Section 3 of the Companies Act 2013, a public company must be incorporated by at least seven persons, as this is the statutory minimum required to form such a company.
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Question 65Company Law
A Private company can commence business as soon as it receives
Certification of incorporation
BLetter of intent
COccupation certificate
DNone of the above
Why A. Under Section 11 of the Companies Act 2013, a private company may commence business upon receipt of the certificate of incorporation, which is conclusive evidence of its legal existence and capacity to enter into contracts and carry on business.
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Question 66Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which of the following is not an essential of a contract of guarantee
AConcurrence of three parties
BSurety's distinct promise to be answerable
CLiabilities to be legally enforceable
Existence of only one contract
Why D. A contract of guarantee under Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act requires three parties — the creditor, the principal debtor, and the surety — and cannot exist with only one contract, as it inherently involves a tripartite relationship distinct from a simple contract.
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Question 67Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
The term 'Agent' is defined in Indian Contract Act under Section
A180 of the Act
B181 of the Act
182 of the Act
D183 of the Act
Why C. The term 'Agent' is defined in Section 182 of the Indian Contract Act, which states that an agent is a person employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealings with third persons.
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Question 68Company Law
What is the maximum number of partners in Banking business
AEight
Ten
CTwelve
DSixteen
Why B. Under Section 42 of the Indian Partnership Act, a banking partnership cannot have more than ten partners, as this is the statutory limit prescribed for firms engaged in banking business.
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Question 69Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
A person who gives the guarantee is called
ABailee
BCreditor
CDebtor
Surety
Why D. Under Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, a surety is the person who gives a guarantee to perform the promise or discharge the liability of a third person in case of their default.
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Question 70Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against the goods
ALien
BStoppage in transit
CRight of resale
To ascertain price
Why D. Under Section 46 of the Indian Contract Act, an unpaid seller has rights such as lien, stoppage in transit, and resale, but not the right to ascertain price — that is a matter for the contract terms, not a statutory remedy available to the seller against the goods.
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Question 71Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act
Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides
Injunctions
BCourt's discretion on specific performance
CCancellation of instruments
DNone of the above
Why A. Sections 36 to 42 of the Specific Relief Act deal exclusively with injunctions, which are court orders compelling or restraining a party from performing a specific act, and they form the complete statutory framework for granting temporary or perpetual injunctions in civil disputes.
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Question 72Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Which of the following is not of civil nature
ARight to take out procession
BRight to Worship in a temple
CRight to Caste and Religion
All of the above
Why D. Under Articles 19, 25, and 26 of the Constitution of India, rights such as freedom of speech, freedom of religion, and the right to manage religious institutions are fundamental rights, not civil rights in the traditional sense of private law remedies; hence, all listed options being fundamental rights, none are of purely civil nature.
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Question 73Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
In a suit where the doctrine of res judicata applies
The suit is liable to be dismissed
BThe suit is liable to be stayed
CBoth (a) and (b)
DNone of the above
Why A. Under Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a suit is liable to be dismissed if the matter directly and substantially in issue has already been decided between the same parties in a former suit, and the decision is still in force.
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Question 74Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Under Section16 CPC a suit relating to immovable property can be filed in a court whose local jurisdiction is
AWhere the property is situated
BWhere the defendant voluntarily resides or carries on business
Both (a) and (b)
DNone of the above
Why C. Under Section 16 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a suit relating to immovable property must be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the property is situated, and this applies whether the suit is for recovery, partition, or any other right in the property.
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Question 75Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
Pleading means
Plaint and written statement
BPlaint only
CWritten statement
DOral statement by the pleader
Why A. Pleading under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, means the plaint and the written statement, as defined in Section 26, which are the foundational documents through which parties state their claims and defenses in a civil suit.
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Question 76Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
On failure to file a written statement, under order VIII Rule 10 of CPC, the court may
Apass any other order
BOrder for striking off the decree
CMay pronounce the judgement at once
Any of the above
Why D. Under Order VIII Rule 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, if a defendant fails to file a written statement, the court may proceed to pronounce judgment against the defendant, or take such other action as it deems fit, including granting an ex parte decree or allowing the plaintiff to proceed with the suit unopposed — any of these outcomes is legally permissible.
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Question 77Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
What is meant by Homicide ?
ASuicide by human being not at home
BSuicide at home
Killing of a human being by another human being
DKilling of human being by animal
Why C. Homicide means the killing of a human being by another human being, as defined under Section 101 of the BNS.
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Question 78Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable offence
AUnder Section 274-276 of IP C
BUnder Section 277-278 of IPC
Under section 272-273 of IPC
DNone of the above
Why C. Under Section 272 and 273 of the Indian Penal Code, adulteration of food or drink intended for sale is a punishable offence because it endangers public health and is treated as a criminal act against the community's welfare.
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Question 79Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Maximum punishment for waging a war against the Government of India under IPC is
ARigorous imprisonment up to 5 years
BRigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
CRigorous imprisonment for life term
Death sentence
Why D. Under Section 121 of the Indian Penal Code, the offence of waging war against the Government of India is punishable with death, or life imprisonment, or imprisonment for a term which may extend to life; the maximum punishment is death.
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Question 80Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Offences relating to elections are
AContained in the IPC as originally enacted
Are introduced in the IPC by a subsequent amendment
CAre not covered by IPC
DNone of the above
Why B. Offences relating to elections are not originally part of the Indian Penal Code but were added later through a specific amendment to address electoral malpractices, making them statutory additions to the Code.
Question 81Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Rupa Bajaj V/s. KPS Gill, is a famous case which the Supreme Court decided on
AWrongful restraint
BWrongful confinement
Outrage the modesty of a women
DMaintenance to the divorced women
Why C. Section 74 of the BNS criminalizes acts intended to outrage the modesty of a woman, which is the legal principle directly addressed in the case of Rupa Bajaj v. KPS Gill.
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Question 82Family Law
Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, the person who is taken in adoption
Must be a Hindu only
BA Hindu or Jew
CMay be Hindu or Christian
DNone of the above
Why A. Under Section 6 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a person who is taken in adoption must be a Hindu, as the Act applies only to Hindus and defines the legal capacity for adoption within that religious framework.
Question 83Family Law
Polygamy was permitted for Hindus before the year
A1956
B1954
1955
D1978
Why C. Under Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, a marriage is void if either party has a spouse living at the time of the marriage, and this Act came into force in 1955, abolishing polygamy for Hindus.
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Question 84Family Law
Mohan gets married to his sister's daughter Kriti
The marriage is valid if the custom allows it
BThe marriage is void
CThe marriage is valid only if the court approves it
DThe marriage is valid only if the Panchayat permits
Why A. Under Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, a marriage is valid if it conforms to the customary rites and ceremonies of either party, and if the custom permits marriage between sapindas, such as between a man and his sister's daughter, the marriage is lawful despite the proximity of relationship.
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Question 85Environmental Law
Within the purview of Water Act, the meaning of Stream is defined as
AIncludes a river but not a water course
BIncludes a water course but not a river
CIncludes river and water course , but not subterranean waters
Includes a river, a water course and subterranean river
Why D. Under Section 2(j) of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, the term 'stream' is legally defined to include a river, a water course, and a subterranean river, ensuring comprehensive coverage of all natural water flows subject to pollution control.
Question 86Intellectual Property Law
Section 2 (1) (ZB) of the Trade Mark Act 1999, defines the meaning of
ALicense
Trade Mark
CRegistration
DCancellation
Why B. Section 2(1)(ZB) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 defines a trademark as a mark capable of being represented graphically and which is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of others, making 'Trade Mark' the correct legal term under this provision.
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Question 87Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Outraging the modesty of a woman is punishable under IPC
ASection 376 (a)
BSection 376 (b)
Section 354
DSection 498
Why C. Outraging the modesty of a woman is punishable under Section 354 of the Indian Penal Code, which criminalizes any act intended to outrage or knowing it to be likely to outrage the modesty of a woman, including assault or use of criminal force.
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Question 88Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Section 463 of Indian Penal Code deals with the crime of
AHouse breaking
BDishonest misappropriation of property
Forgery
DForgery with cheating
Why C. Section 463 of the Indian Penal Code defines forgery as making a false document or electronic record with intent to cause damage or injury, to support a claim or title, or to induce someone to part with property or enter into a contract.
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Question 89Criminal Law (IPC / BNS)
Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under
Section 503 to 506
BSection 509 to 516
CSection 319 to 329
DNone of the above
Why A. Criminal intimidation is defined under Section 503 of the Indian Penal Code, and the punishment for it is provided in Sections 504 and 506, making Sections 503 to 506 the complete legal framework for this offence.
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Question 90Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Under Section 59 to 60 of Indian Evidence Act the oral statement means
AAll statements made before the court by the witness
BAll statement made before the police by the accused
CAll statement of facts which a witness heard to say
DAll of the above
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Question 91Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Under the Evidence Act, 'Court' includes
AAll Judges
BAll Magistrates
CAll Arbitrators
(a) and (b)
Why D. Under Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 'Court' includes all Judges and Magistrates, and any person authorized by law to take evidence, regardless of whether they are acting in a judicial or quasi-judicial capacity.
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Question 92Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Admissibility of contents of electronic records may be proved in accordance with the provisions of
AUnder Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act
BUnder Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act
Under Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act
DNone of the above
Why C. The contents of electronic records are admissible only if they comply with the conditions laid down in Section 65-B of the Indian Evidence Act, which prescribes the manner and certification required for such records to be accepted as evidence.
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Question 93Evidence (IEA / BSA)
Which is not a public record as per the provisions of Indian Evidence Act
ADocuments forming the acts or records of the sovereign authority
BDocuments forming the acts or records of official bodies, tribunals
Documents and correspondence from advocate and Notary office
DDocuments and circulars from University of Delhi
Why C. Under Section 74 of the Indian Evidence Act, public records include documents maintained by public officers in the course of their official duties, but documents and correspondence from an advocate or notary office are private in nature and not created or preserved by public authorities as part of their public function.
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Question 94Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Section 67 of Motor Vehicle Act 1988 provides
APossession of driving license while driving
BPossession of Insurance certificate and PUC certificate in the vehicle
CRevoking driving license if drunk driving is detected
State government's power to control the road transport
Why D. Section 67 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 vests the state government with the exclusive power to regulate road transport by granting permits for stage carriages, contract carriages, and goods carriages, thereby establishing that control over road transport lies with the state government and not the central government or local authorities.
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Question 95Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
The term 'Tort' is a
ALatin Word
French Word
CEnglish word
DItalian word
Why B. The term 'Tort' is derived from the French word 'tort', meaning 'wrong', and reflects its origin in civil law traditions where it denotes a civil wrong that causes harm and invites legal remedy.
Question 96Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
In Tort, what is 'vicarious liability'?
AA person is generally liable for his own wrongful act
A person is liable for the wrongful act done by other person
CA person is liable for the wrongful act in his absence
DNone of the above
Why B. Vicarious liability is a legal principle where one person is held responsible for the wrongful act of another, typically when there is a relationship of control or authority, such as employer-employee, and the act was committed in the course of that relationship.
Question 97Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Under Section 2(1) (f) of Consumer Protection Act 1986, 'defect' is meant by any fault, imperfection or shortcomings in .................................in relation to the goods
AQuality and Quantity
BPotency
CPurity or standard
All of the above
Why D. Under Section 2(1)(f) of the Consumer Protection Act 1986, 'defect' means any fault, imperfection, or shortcoming in the quality, quantity, potency, purity, or standard of goods, as required by any law or as claimed by the trader.
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Question 98Tort, Motor Vehicle & Consumer Protection
Which of the following falls under the categories of Act of God
AStorm and cyclone
BExtra ordinary rainfall or flood
CLightning and thunder
All of the above
Why D. Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act provides that a contract becomes void when performance becomes impossible due to an unforeseen event beyond the control of the parties, such as an Act of God, which includes natural disasters like floods, earthquakes, or lightning, and all listed options fall under this principle of supervening impossibility.
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Question 99Law related to Taxation
Income Tax Act was enacted in
A1951
1961
C1971
DNone of the above
Why B. The Income Tax Act was enacted in 1961, replacing the earlier Income Tax Act of 1922, to consolidate and amend the law relating to income tax in India.
Question 100Law related to Taxation
'Income' is defined under Section 24 of the Income Tax Act, as
AProfits and gains
BDividend
CVoluntary contribution received by a Trust for charitable Purpose
The Bar Council of India typically declares the AIBE result about 30 to 40 days after the exam. Until then, this unofficial answer key lets you estimate your score immediately.
The passing cutoff is 45% (45/100) for General/OBC candidates and 40% (40/100) for SC/ST/PwD candidates.
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Answer key
